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CompTIA CS0-003 Practice Test 63

Question 620

A business asks to exempt an entire subnet from scanning to avoid one sensitive device. What is the MOST appropriate analyst action based on the evidence?

  1. Rotate compromised or inherited credentials and verify associated access.
  2. Document validated vendor fix and adjust signature with controlled evidence.
  3. Renew risk assessment, upgrade compensating controls and seek accountable authorization.
  4. Scope a narrowly justified exception to the sensitive device and document alternate checks.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Broad exclusions create unnecessary vulnerability blind spots. Limit scan exception scope.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Reimaging alone does not invalidate externally reusable credentials. It could help close residual credentials after rebuild, but it would not limit scan exception scope.

B:

Accurate scanner configuration prevents repeated phantom findings. That is relevant to security control quality and exception closure, not to limit scan exception scope.

C:

Expired exceptions cannot remain valid by default. It would reauthorize vulnerability exception on expiry, but it would not limit scan exception scope.

Question 621

A compliance exception includes a firewall rule but no named control owner or monitoring. Which next step is MOST defensible for the security team?

  1. Assign ownership and effectiveness tests to the compensating control.
  2. Restrict direct access and enforce authentication at the approved gateway.
  3. Restrict identities and network routes plus monitor suspicious requests.
  4. Isolate the device, monitor approved conduits and record time-limited risk exception.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

An unowned rule may drift without reducing risk as intended. Govern compensating control operation.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A secure choke point can compensate for application authentication limitations. It would apply MFA gateway as compensating control, but it would not govern compensating control operation.

C:

Narrow authenticated service-to-service paths reduce reachable attack surface. It could help compensate for unsupported application patch, but it would not govern compensating control operation.

D:

Network and detection controls can reduce exposure while permanent maintenance is constrained. That is relevant to compensating security control design, not to govern compensating control operation.

Question 622

A critical vulnerability has an effective network isolation control while a tested fix awaits approval. Which action BEST aligns with sound security operations?

  1. Remove or disable the unnecessary feature after dependency review.
  2. Record interim risk mitigation and execute authorized permanent remediation.
  3. Document scope, rationale, residual risk and review date through governance.
  4. Record residual operational exposure and verify contractual transfer terms.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Compensating controls reduce exposure but do not necessarily remove the defect. Combine temporary mitigation and permanent patch.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Risk avoidance may be simpler than protecting unneeded attack surface. It would choose risk avoidance for unused feature, but it would not combine temporary mitigation and permanent patch.

C:

Formal risk acceptance should be bounded and accountable. That is relevant to risk treatment accountability, not to combine temporary mitigation and permanent patch.

D:

Financial liability transfer does not eliminate the organization's technical risk. It would distinguish risk transfer from removal, but it would not combine temporary mitigation and permanent patch.

Question 623

An inventory finds unmanaged internet domains pointing to a corporate cloud origin. Which response BEST addresses the security problem described?

  1. Extend component inventory and remediate all deployed affected versions.
  2. Disable unused services and restrict necessary management protocols.
  3. Reconcile domain ownership and retire or secure shadow-facing services.
  4. Review source ranges and remove obsolete network exceptions through change management.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Forgotten externally resolvable assets expand the attack surface. Remediate orphaned external domains.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Reducing one exposed route may leave the same vulnerable component elsewhere. It could help close shared library attack surface, but it would not remediate orphaned external domains.

B:

Removing unused entry points reduces exploitable exposure. That is relevant to attack surface reduction, not to remediate orphaned external domains.

D:

Stale trust grants remain routes for unauthorized connection. It could help clean obsolete external allowlists, but it would not remediate orphaned external domains.

Question 624

A weak application has no vendor fix but accepts requests only from a service mesh. Which investigative or response action BEST fits the evidence?

  1. Isolate the device, monitor approved conduits and record time-limited risk exception.
  2. Assign ownership and effectiveness tests to the compensating control.
  3. Restrict direct access and enforce authentication at the approved gateway.
  4. Restrict identities and network routes plus monitor suspicious requests.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Narrow authenticated service-to-service paths reduce reachable attack surface. Compensate for unsupported application patch.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Network and detection controls can reduce exposure while permanent maintenance is constrained. That is relevant to compensating security control design, not to compensate for unsupported application patch.

B:

An unowned rule may drift without reducing risk as intended. It would govern compensating control operation, but it would not compensate for unsupported application patch.

C:

A secure choke point can compensate for application authentication limitations. It could help apply MFA gateway as compensating control, but it would not compensate for unsupported application patch.

Question 625

A risk register has dozens of permanently accepted minor issues without owner reassessment. What is the MOST appropriate analyst action based on the evidence?

  1. Establish expiry, grouping and periodic review based on changed exposure.
  2. Incorporate the tested abuse case into security regression testing and threat models.
  3. Verify evidence, handle reward per program rules and consolidate remediation tracking.
  4. Fix provisioning templates and configuration policy rather than repeatedly correcting individual hosts.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Risk acceptance needs continuing validity as context evolves. Stop perpetual unmanaged risk exceptions.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Manual discovery should strengthen future preventive and detective coverage. It could help turn pentest finding into regression control, but it would not stop perpetual unmanaged risk exceptions.

C:

Duplicate reports should not create contradictory fixes or suppress legitimate evidence. That is relevant to technical debt and recurring findings, not to stop perpetual unmanaged risk exceptions.

D:

Baseline automation prevents repeated configuration drift at the source. It would eliminate recurring golden-image misconfiguration, but it would not stop perpetual unmanaged risk exceptions.

Question 626

An organization wants to stop unauthorized changes before they occur rather than detect them afterward. Which next step is MOST defensible for the security team?

  1. Perform corrective remediation followed by verified configuration assessment.
  2. Apply preventative access controls with least-privilege approvals.
  3. Deploy detective file-integrity monitoring with protected alerts.
  4. Use responsive containment controls through approved incident authority.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Preventative controls block the prohibited action at authorization time. Choose preventative security control.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Corrective controls remove known deficiencies and require outcome validation. It could help verify corrective control effectiveness, but it would not choose preventative security control.

C:

Detective monitoring creates actionable evidence after changes. It would choose detective integrity control, but it would not choose preventative security control.

D:

Responsive actions limit ongoing incident propagation after detection. It could help select response containment control, but it would not choose preventative security control.

Question 627

An asset owner signs acceptance for a legacy flaw without recording its expiry or rationale. Which action BEST aligns with sound security operations?

  1. Record interim risk mitigation and execute authorized permanent remediation.
  2. Remove or disable the unnecessary feature after dependency review.
  3. Document scope, rationale, residual risk and review date through governance.
  4. Record residual operational exposure and verify contractual transfer terms.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Formal risk acceptance should be bounded and accountable. Govern legacy vulnerability risk acceptance.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Compensating controls reduce exposure but do not necessarily remove the defect. That is relevant to risk treatment accountability, not to govern legacy vulnerability risk acceptance.

B:

Risk avoidance may be simpler than protecting unneeded attack surface. It would choose risk avoidance for unused feature, but it would not govern legacy vulnerability risk acceptance.

D:

Financial liability transfer does not eliminate the organization's technical risk. That is relevant to risk treatment accountability, not to govern legacy vulnerability risk acceptance.

Question 628

A vulnerable feature has no valid business use but the team proposes a costly compensating control. Which response BEST addresses the security problem described?

  1. Document scope, rationale, residual risk and review date through governance.
  2. Record residual operational exposure and verify contractual transfer terms.
  3. Record interim risk mitigation and execute authorized permanent remediation.
  4. Remove or disable the unnecessary feature after dependency review.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Risk avoidance may be simpler than protecting unneeded attack surface. Choose risk avoidance for unused feature.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Formal risk acceptance should be bounded and accountable. It would govern legacy vulnerability risk acceptance, but it would not choose risk avoidance for unused feature.

B:

Financial liability transfer does not eliminate the organization's technical risk. It could help distinguish risk transfer from removal, but it would not choose risk avoidance for unused feature.

C:

Compensating controls reduce exposure but do not necessarily remove the defect. That is relevant to risk treatment accountability, not to choose risk avoidance for unused feature.

Question 629

A mature team tracks security bugs but has no verified closure criteria. Which investigative or response action BEST fits the evidence?

  1. Define reproducible exploit conditions and retest cases as remediation acceptance gates.
  2. Encode untrusted data at the output sink for the actual rendering context.
  3. Add parameterization standards, code review and security tests into the SDLC.
  4. Conduct threat modeling before finalizing the design and trust boundaries.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Ticket status alone cannot prove security flaws were fixed. Establish security-defect closure validation.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Encoding at input time can fail when the same data reaches different interpreters. That is relevant to security sdlc and secure coding, not to establish security-defect closure validation.

C:

Preventive development practices reduce recurrence more effectively than only late scans. It would embed secure coding throughout SDLC, but it would not establish security-defect closure validation.

D:

Early adversary-focused design review identifies architectural weaknesses. It could help apply threat modeling during design, but it would not establish security-defect closure validation.

Question 630

A security fix requires database restart but no business continuity plan exists. What is the MOST appropriate analyst action based on the evidence?

  1. Verify all nodes and listener state before closing the vulnerability.
  2. Prepare a recovery and availability plan with service owners before downtime.
  3. Obtain change-owner authorization or defer intrusive validation safely.
  4. Plan staged compatibility and coordinated deployment with rollback.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Recovery readiness limits the outage impact of necessary remediation. Plan safe restart for security fix.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Redundant infrastructure can preserve exposure after partial remediation. That is relevant to remediation sequencing and change conflict, not to plan safe restart for security fix.

C:

Assessment activity should honor operational risk constraints. It could help govern intrusive validation during freeze, but it would not plan safe restart for security fix.

D:

Security fixes require dependency-aware rollout to avoid systemwide disruption. That is relevant to remediation sequencing and change conflict, not to plan safe restart for security fix.


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