Question 510
A zero-day is reported on a critical service and no vendor patch exists. What is the MOST appropriate analyst action based on the evidence?
Explanation
Correct Answer
Zero-day exposure needs interim risk reduction even without a patch. Mitigate unpatched zero-day exposure.
Incorrect Answers
Working exploitation code raises near-term attack likelihood. That is relevant to exploit availability and risk priority, not to mitigate unpatched zero-day exposure.
Abandoned reachable infrastructure can remain an active attack path. It could help prioritize exploitable forgotten appliance, but it would not mitigate unpatched zero-day exposure.
Unverified claims should not override known exploitability priorities. That is relevant to exploit availability and risk priority, not to mitigate unpatched zero-day exposure.






CompTIA CySA+ (CS0-003) (CS0-003) Practice Tests