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CompTIA CS0-003 Practice Test 2

Question 10

A security baseline scan shows kernel auditing disabled after a package rollout. What is the MOST appropriate analyst action based on the evidence?

  1. Inspect the autorun value, signer and process ancestry against the approved baseline.
  2. Compare the change with authorized configuration management and restore audit enforcement.
  3. Decode the command safely and correlate task creator, process tree and network activity.
  4. Review the unit file, executable path and deployment history.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Unapproved audit weakening removes visibility into subsequent activity. Remediate disabled kernel audit.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Registry startup entries can provide persistence and warrant source validation. It would investigate registry autorun persistence, but it would not remediate disabled kernel audit.

C:

Encoded text alone is not proof, but linked execution context exposes intent. That is relevant to os persistence and baseline evidence, not to remediate disabled kernel audit.

D:

Service persistence can blend into normal boot behavior unless baselined. It would investigate suspicious Linux service installation, but it would not remediate disabled kernel audit.

Question 11

A cloud serverless function handles payment data but generates no searchable audit trail. Which next step is MOST defensible for the security team?

  1. Map workload and account identifiers during central SIEM normalization.
  2. Apply configuration monitoring inside each guest and compare against the approved baseline.
  3. Enable function execution and cloud control-plane logging with a protected central sink.
  4. Forward container stdout and security events outside the ephemeral container filesystem.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Ephemeral workloads need centrally retained logs beyond their short lifetime. Observe short-lived serverless actions.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Entity enrichment allows cross-environment activity to be correlated. It could help link identities across cloud and data center, but it would not observe short-lived serverless actions.

B:

Hypervisor hardening alone does not ensure guest operating-system integrity. That is relevant to cloud and on-prem telemetry boundaries, not to observe short-lived serverless actions.

D:

External log persistence preserves evidence when containers are replaced. It could help preserve container telemetry across redeployments, but it would not observe short-lived serverless actions.

Question 12

East-west traffic from a compromised workstation reaches a database administration port. Which action BEST aligns with sound security operations?

  1. Apply identity- and application-specific deny-by-default microsegmentation policy.
  2. Document the visibility gap and correlate permitted metadata with endpoint telemetry.
  3. Fix the sanctioned access policy and confirm traffic follows the approved SASE path.
  4. Restrict lateral traffic with workload segmentation and allow only approved management paths.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Internal zone boundaries reduce attacker movement after initial compromise. Restrict east-west administrative exposure.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Broad flat connectivity defeats the intended tier separation. That is relevant to network boundaries and segmentation, not to restrict east-west administrative exposure.

B:

Encryption boundaries require alternate evidence rather than invisible payload assumptions. It would investigate encrypted traffic without payload access, but it would not restrict east-west administrative exposure.

C:

A bypass defeats centrally enforced access and security controls. It could help close SASE application bypass, but it would not restrict east-west administrative exposure.

Question 13

An administrator permanently holds global privileges for infrequent maintenance. Which response BEST addresses the security problem described?

  1. Move the identity to just-in-time privileged access with approval and auditing.
  2. Require continuous device posture evaluation for conditional application access.
  3. Validate claim-to-role mappings and apply least-privilege authorization at the relying party.
  4. Enforce appropriate MFA or passwordless policy for the privileged resource.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Limited elevation windows reduce persistent credential exposure. Reduce standing administrator privilege.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Zero trust should reassess device state rather than rely on a one-time grant. It could help continuously evaluate device trust, but it would not reduce standing administrator privilege.

C:

Valid authentication does not imply authorization for every target role. That is relevant to zero-trust access interpretation, not to reduce standing administrator privilege.

D:

Strong step-up authentication protects higher-risk privileged access. It would enforce high-assurance privileged authentication, but it would not reduce standing administrator privilege.

Question 14

An active scanner causes legacy plant controllers to pause communications. Which investigative or response action BEST fits the evidence?

  1. Enforce approved jump-host access and isolate the safety network from office clients.
  2. Switch to passive traffic discovery and schedule any authenticated checks with OT owners.
  3. Establish resilient out-of-band collection with buffering for intermittent links.
  4. Route privileged maintenance through approved monitored remote access with time-bound grants.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Fragile real-time devices can be disrupted by aggressive probes. Use safe OT asset visibility method.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Segmented control access reduces the blast radius of corporate compromise. It could help restrict unsafe IT-to-OT connectivity, but it would not use safe OT asset visibility method.

C:

Security event preservation must tolerate disconnected control networks. It would protect OT telemetry across disconnections, but it would not use safe OT asset visibility method.

D:

Controlled remote support gives accountability and reduces persistent exposure. It could help govern external OT maintenance sessions, but it would not use safe OT asset visibility method.

Question 15

Antimalware reports a blocked file but does not show whether the process executed. What is the MOST appropriate analyst action based on the evidence?

  1. Replace the shared credential with scoped identities and rotate existing secrets.
  2. Apply endpoint DLP or removable-media policy for the identified sensitive groups.
  3. Inspect EDR process creation and quarantine records before concluding execution occurred.
  4. Compare membership change events with approved requests and remediate excessive grants.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A detection or quarantine alone does not establish successful execution. Distinguish file detection from executed process.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Shared elevated identities increase lateral movement exposure and reduce attribution. That is relevant to endpoint controls and data paths, not to distinguish file detection from executed process.

B:

Controls at the endpoint can enforce transfer restrictions before data leaves. It would enforce removable-media data controls, but it would not distinguish file detection from executed process.

D:

Privileged group drift can stem from faulty automation or abuse. That is relevant to endpoint controls and data paths, not to distinguish file detection from executed process.

Question 16

A contractor's device remains trusted after its compliance state becomes unhealthy. Which next step is MOST defensible for the security team?

  1. Enforce appropriate MFA or passwordless policy for the privileged resource.
  2. Move the identity to just-in-time privileged access with approval and auditing.
  3. Validate claim-to-role mappings and apply least-privilege authorization at the relying party.
  4. Require continuous device posture evaluation for conditional application access.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Zero trust should reassess device state rather than rely on a one-time grant. Continuously evaluate device trust.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Strong step-up authentication protects higher-risk privileged access. It would enforce high-assurance privileged authentication, but it would not continuously evaluate device trust.

B:

Limited elevation windows reduce persistent credential exposure. It could help reduce standing administrator privilege, but it would not continuously evaluate device trust.

C:

Valid authentication does not imply authorization for every target role. That is relevant to zero-trust access interpretation, not to continuously evaluate device trust.

Question 17

A contractor VPN terminates directly on production controllers without session recording. Which action BEST aligns with sound security operations?

  1. Route privileged maintenance through approved monitored remote access with time-bound grants.
  2. Enforce approved jump-host access and isolate the safety network from office clients.
  3. Switch to passive traffic discovery and schedule any authenticated checks with OT owners.
  4. Establish resilient out-of-band collection with buffering for intermittent links.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Controlled remote support gives accountability and reduces persistent exposure. Govern external OT maintenance sessions.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Segmented control access reduces the blast radius of corporate compromise. That is relevant to segregated ot monitoring, not to govern external OT maintenance sessions.

C:

Fragile real-time devices can be disrupted by aggressive probes. It would use safe OT asset visibility method, but it would not govern external OT maintenance sessions.

D:

Security event preservation must tolerate disconnected control networks. It could help protect OT telemetry across disconnections, but it would not govern external OT maintenance sessions.

Question 18

A database team logs full authentication tokens to troubleshooting files. Which response BEST addresses the security problem described?

  1. Quarantine the outbound transfer and validate the DLP match against approved business need.
  2. Redact secrets at the logging source and rotate credentials already exposed.
  3. Reclassify the data and apply access and retention restrictions for regulated PII.
  4. Reassess classification and data sharing because reidentification risk has changed.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Reducing log retention does not mitigate tokens copied into log events. Remove secrets from diagnostic logs.

Incorrect Answers

A:

DLP action should prevent likely CHD leakage while preserving review. That is relevant to data classification and handling, not to remove secrets from diagnostic logs.

C:

Sensitive-data controls depend on the actual content, not an inaccurate label. It could help correct mislabeled personally identifiable data, but it would not remove secrets from diagnostic logs.

D:

Combining datasets can turn apparently anonymous records into personal data. That is relevant to data classification and handling, not to remove secrets from diagnostic logs.

Question 19

A SASE rollout routes remote users around sanctioned inspection for one SaaS application. Which investigative or response action BEST fits the evidence?

  1. Document the visibility gap and correlate permitted metadata with endpoint telemetry.
  2. Restrict lateral traffic with workload segmentation and allow only approved management paths.
  3. Fix the sanctioned access policy and confirm traffic follows the approved SASE path.
  4. Apply identity- and application-specific deny-by-default microsegmentation policy.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A bypass defeats centrally enforced access and security controls. Close SASE application bypass.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Encryption boundaries require alternate evidence rather than invisible payload assumptions. It would investigate encrypted traffic without payload access, but it would not close SASE application bypass.

B:

Internal zone boundaries reduce attacker movement after initial compromise. It could help restrict east-west administrative exposure, but it would not close SASE application bypass.

D:

Broad flat connectivity defeats the intended tier separation. It would implement least-privilege network tiers, but it would not close SASE application bypass.

Question 20

A management-plane interface is reachable from the guest network. What is the MOST appropriate analyst action based on the evidence?

  1. Verify forwarding configuration and block unauthorized telemetry export.
  2. Validate inventory and enforce port or network access control for the approved device.
  3. Protect the internal hop with appropriate transport encryption or segmented trust boundary.
  4. Restrict management access to a segregated administrative network.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Guest access to device control planes increases privilege-escalation opportunity. Isolate network-device management plane.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Security logs can themselves contain sensitive infrastructure intelligence. It could help stop unauthorized DNS-log forwarding, but it would not isolate network-device management plane.

B:

Unexpected attachment may represent rogue access or maintenance drift. That is relevant to network device and service context, not to isolate network-device management plane.

C:

Terminating TLS at the edge does not secure exposed backend traffic. It would remediate unencrypted backend service hop, but it would not isolate network-device management plane.


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