Pass Your Cisco 200-301 Exam Easy!

Cisco 200-301 Exam Questions & Answers, Accurate & Verified By IT Experts

Instant Download, Free Fast Updates, 99.6% Pass Rate

200-301 Premium Bundle

$74.99

Cisco 200-301 Premium Bundle

200-301 Premium File: 760 Questions & Answers

Last Update: Sep 27, 2026

200-301 PDF Study Guide: 1969 Pages

200-301 Bundle gives you unlimited access to "200-301" files. However, this does not replace the need for a .vce exam simulator. To download VCE exam simulator click here
Cisco 200-301 Premium Bundle
Cisco 200-301 Premium Bundle

200-301 Premium File: 760 Questions & Answers

Last Update: Sep 27, 2026

200-301 PDF Study Guide: 1969 Pages

$74.99

200-301 Bundle gives you unlimited access to "200-301" files. However, this does not replace the need for a .vce exam simulator. To download your .vce exam simulator click here

Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 7

Question 60

Two Cisco routers share an Ethernet /24 and attempt OSPFv2 adjacency. Both use matching authentication and hello intervals, but the first advertises area 0 and the second area 3 on that interface. The OSPF neighbor list remains empty. What is the primary correction?

  1. Set different hello timers on the interfaces to force a new OSPF negotiation.
  2. Increase the OSPF cost on the area 3 interface so its route wins the election.
  3. Treat the Ethernet 802.1Q trunk as a replacement for matching OSPF area and Hello timer settings between the two routers.
  4. Configure both directly connected OSPF interfaces in the same intended area.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

OSPF neighbor formation requires compatible area identity on the shared link. A router expecting area 0 does not form an adjacency with a peer sending area 3 Hello packets. Align the area configuration, then verify neighbor state; changing router IDs or route costs cannot substitute for matching area IDs.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Hello/dead timers are additional parameters that normally must be compatible. Creating a timer mismatch would introduce another obstacle while leaving the area IDs different. Fix the identified area mismatch and keep the already matching timers.

B:

OSPF interface cost influences route selection after adjacencies and LSDB exchange. It does not permit neighbors in different areas on the same link to establish adjacency. No route metric can correct a mismatch in the area field of neighbor Hellos.

C:

Layer 2 connectivity can carry protocol packets but cannot make OSPF neighbors form when their required control-plane parameters are incompatible.

Question 61

An ISP hands a new IPv6 allocation to a company. Its engineer wants an address that can be routed across the public IPv6 Internet, not just on one LAN or within the enterprise. Which address is an appropriate example?

  1. fe80::15, which is a link-local address.
  2. fd12:ab34::15, which is unique-local address space.
  3. ff02::15, which identifies a multicast group.
  4. 2001:db8:22::15, representing the global-unicast prefix category.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Global unicast IPv6 addresses occupy 2000::/3; 2001:db8::/32 is the documentation example of that global address class. A production interface would use an actually delegated global prefix, not the reserved documentation range.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Link-local fe80::/10 addresses automatically support neighbor discovery and communication on a single link, but routers do not forward such traffic globally. They cannot identify the Internet-facing host as requested.

B:

An fd-prefixed address belongs to fc00::/7 unique-local space and is intended for administrative domains. Upstream public routers do not treat it as an Internet-reachable global host address.

C:

IPv6 ff00::/8 identifies multicast receivers rather than a unique host interface. The ff02 scope is link-local multicast, so this address does not represent the requested globally routed unicast endpoint.

Question 62

Two access switches are connected by two Ethernet members intended for an LACP EtherChannel. Both sets of ports are configured with channel-group mode passive, but no bundle forms. What is the most direct adjustment?

  1. Configure LACP active on only one link and leave the other intended member in unconditional individual mode.
  2. Set at least one side to LACP active while retaining compatible trunk and speed settings.
  3. Change both sides to LACP passive with a higher port-channel number.
  4. Set both switches to PAgP desirable without reviewing the LACP design.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

LACP passive interfaces respond to received negotiation but do not initiate it. Changing at least one switch to active starts the LACP exchange, provided port parameters are otherwise compatible.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An uneven aggregation member set can leave a port suspended or unbundled; both intended links need compatible channel-group and partner settings.

C:

Renaming or increasing a local channel-group number does not make a passive participant initiate LACP PDUs. The protocol remains passive on both sides and no aggregation negotiation begins.

D:

PAgP is a different Cisco aggregation protocol, not an LACP active setting. Mixing protocols or changing both sides without the intended standard cannot be assumed to repair the negotiation failure.

Question 63

A branch router displays the route `S 10.77.80.0/24 [1/0] via 192.0.2.9` in its IPv4 routing table. What does the route entry tell the operator?

  1. Interpret S as an OSPF-learned route with administrative distance 110 because the next hop is remote.
  2. Treat 10.77.80.0/24 as a /32 host route to a single machine.
  3. A manually configured static network route forwards toward next hop 192.0.2.9.
  4. Interpret the displayed [1/0] as the VLAN number and physical interface ID rather than administrative distance and metric.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Cisco IOS code S identifies a static route. The /24 describes an IP network, and the `via` address is the resolved next hop; bracketed numbers show administrative distance and metric.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Cisco route codes identify the source: S denotes static, while OSPF learned prefixes normally use O and default AD 110.

B:

A /24 route covers 256 addresses in the destination network, unlike the single-host /32 entry.

D:

Cisco route brackets show source distance and route metric/cost, not VLAN tagging information.

Question 64

A campus switch carries voice and bulk-backup packets across a congested uplink. Network operations wants to recognize voice traffic and apply a policy-consistent DSCP code point before queuing. Which QoS action fits?

  1. Classify packets by trusted application criteria and mark the intended DSCP value at the approved trust boundary.
  2. Assign voice packets to a high-priority class but allow bulk traffic to claim that same class without an ingress trust rule.
  3. Increase the egress queue capacity without applying any policy that differentiates voice and backup scheduling.
  4. Configure interface speed negotiation to a lower Ethernet speed for all flows.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

QoS classification identifies the traffic class using matching criteria, and DSCP marking carries a per-packet forwarding treatment signal. The trust boundary prevents untrusted hosts from arbitrarily choosing their priority.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Without controlled classification and marking, backup flows can crowd out the priority intended for latency-sensitive voice.

C:

A larger buffer can reduce some drops but does not guarantee voice receives preferential service during contention.

D:

A link speed change affects physical capacity and can increase congestion, but it neither classifies the voice packets nor marks their IP headers. It is not an appropriate QoS policy change.

Question 65

A building's wireless upgrade replaces an old WPA network that still uses TKIP with a WPA2 deployment. The security reviewer wants the stronger commonly supported WPA2 cipher suite. Which setting should be selected?

  1. Open authentication with no encrypted data traffic.
  2. WPA2 with TKIP to maintain the old weaker cipher.
  3. Legacy WEP with a longer shared key.
  4. WPA2 with AES-CCMP rather than TKIP.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

WPA2 with AES-based CCMP provides stronger confidentiality and integrity properties than the obsolete TKIP mechanism. Client capabilities must match the configured WPA2 security mode during migration.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An open WLAN may be discoverable and easy to join, but it does not provide the protected link encryption required by the security upgrade. Separate access restrictions do not make it WPA2 CCMP.

B:

TKIP was a transitional mechanism for older hardware and is deprecated for modern WLAN security. Retaining it undermines the requested cipher improvement even if WPA2 appears in a configuration label.

C:

WEP uses weaknesses in its key and IV handling and is not a secure modern replacement. A longer WEP passphrase cannot provide the authenticated encryption properties expected of WPA2 AES-CCMP.

Question 66

An automation engineer receives `{"ports":[{"name":"Gi1/0/1","up":true}]}` from a switch controller. Which interpretation of the JSON structure is correct?

  1. The port name is the root object key and ports is its numeric value.
  2. The root is an object with a ports key whose value is an array of port objects.
  3. The root is an array containing three unrelated strings.
  4. The Boolean true is a quoted text value inside a top-level array.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Curly braces enclose a JSON object of named key-value members, while square brackets enclose an ordered array. Here ports is a key mapped to an array whose first element is another object.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Gi1/0/1 is the string value of name inside a nested object. The root property is ports and its value is an array, not a numeric field.

C:

The outermost delimiters are braces rather than brackets. Although one property holds an array, that nested list does not change the root data type into an array of strings.

D:

JSON true is a Boolean literal, not the string "true". The response also nests that Boolean within a port object under an array property, not in a root array.

Question 67

A router receives two OSPF routes to 10.44.16.0/24 from the same OSPF process and area. Both are eligible with identical route types and administrative distance, but one has metric 18 and the other 42. Which route is preferred?

  1. The path with OSPF metric 42 because a larger cost offers more redundancy.
  2. Both routes must be installed only because they have the same destination prefix.
  3. The path with OSPF metric 18, assuming both are otherwise equivalent candidates.
  4. Whichever route was learned first, regardless of the route cost.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

When comparable OSPF paths reach the same prefix, the lower total OSPF cost is preferred. An equal-cost multipath arrangement requires eligible paths with matching costs and platform-supported limits.

Incorrect Answers

A:

OSPF cost is additive and generally selects the lowest eligible path cost. A higher cost may serve as a backup but is not preferred merely because it is numerically larger.

B:

Sharing a destination prefix is insufficient for ECMP; the routes must meet equal-cost and other eligibility conditions. These metrics differ, so the higher-cost route normally is not installed as equal.

D:

Arrival order does not override OSPF path metric in a stable routing decision. The routing protocol calculates eligible routes and selects based on its route types and costs.

Question 68

A network team is given 192.168.60.64/27 for a new printer VLAN. A technician needs the first and last usable host addresses without assigning the network or broadcast address. Which pair is correct?

  1. 192.168.60.65 through 192.168.60.94.
  2. 192.168.60.65 through 192.168.60.126.
  3. 192.168.60.66 through 192.168.60.95.
  4. 192.168.60.64 through 192.168.60.95.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A /27 leaves five host bits, so the subnet spans 32 addresses from .64 through .95. The network and directed broadcast addresses are excluded from ordinary host assignments, leaving .65 to .94.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The .126 endpoint belongs to a different /27 block, 192.168.60.96/27. A VLAN configured for .64/27 cannot simply extend its usable host range into the next subnet.

C:

The .66 endpoint is usable but omits the first usable address .65. The .95 address is broadcast, so this pair both skips a valid host and includes an invalid assignment.

D:

The .64 address is the subnet identifier and .95 is its directed broadcast address. Neither is ordinarily assigned as a printer host in this IPv4 /27.

Question 69

A small clinic configures a new staff WLAN on a Cisco wireless controller. Users will enter the shared passphrase printed on a protected staff onboarding sheet, with no central RADIUS service. Which WLAN security mode fits?

  1. An open network with SSID hiding as its only protection.
  2. WPA2-Enterprise using 802.1X and an unavailable RADIUS server.
  3. A MAC address allowlist without WPA2 client encryption.
  4. WPA2-Personal with AES encryption and the approved preshared key.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

WPA2-Personal uses the agreed preshared key for client association and AES-CCMP for link protection without requiring an external authentication server. Configure the correct WLAN profile and map it to the intended VLAN.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Hiding an SSID changes discovery behavior but does not authenticate clients or encrypt traffic. A determined station can still discover network identifiers; the staff network needs actual WPA2 security.

B:

WPA2-Enterprise typically authenticates users through 802.1X and an appropriate AAA/RADIUS arrangement. The scenario has no RADIUS infrastructure and explicitly requires a shared passphrase.

C:

A MAC filter relies on observable client identifiers that can be spoofed and does not encrypt frames. It cannot substitute for WPA2-Personal association security and its protected data frames.

Question 70

The security team wants to permit SSH from 10.10.20.0/24 to one management server at 172.18.5.10 while denying SSH from other sources. Which extended ACL approach is most specific?

  1. Write a standard source-only ACL matching the server and assume it also filters TCP port 22.
  2. Permit TCP source 10.10.20.0/24 to host 172.18.5.10 destination port 22, then apply an appropriate deny for other management access.
  3. Permit every IP protocol from any source to the server and rely on TCP sequence numbers.
  4. Permit only UDP destination port 22 from the admin subnet to the server.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

An extended IPv4 ACL matches protocol, source prefix, destination host and destination TCP port. The described permit can be placed before an appropriate deny and applied in the intended traffic direction.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A standard ACL can match source addresses but lacks extended protocol and destination-port conditions. It cannot express the required SSH-to-one-host restriction on its own.

C:

Permitting all IP traffic from all sources is broader than the explicit SSH-only management requirement. TCP sequence numbers are not authorization policy and do not restrict the network origin.

D:

SSH normally uses TCP port 22. Matching UDP 22 would not permit the specified SSH sessions, regardless of whether the source subnet is otherwise correct.


Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) (200-301) Practice Tests

Purchase Individually

200-301 Premium File

Premium File
200-301 Premium File
760 Q&A
$76.99$69.99

200-301 Study Guide

Study Guide
200-301 Study Guide
1969 PDF Pages
$27.49$24.99

Site Search:

 

VISA, MasterCard, AmericanExpress, UnionPay

SPECIAL OFFER: GET 10% OFF

ExamCollection Premium

ExamCollection Premium Files

Pass your Exam with ExamCollection's PREMIUM files!

  • ExamCollection Certified Safe Files
  • Guaranteed to have ACTUAL Exam Questions
  • Up-to-Date Exam Study Material - Verified by Experts
  • Instant Downloads
Enter Your Email Address to Receive Your 10% Off Discount Code
A Confirmation Link will be sent to this email address to verify your login
We value your privacy. We will not rent or sell your email address

SPECIAL OFFER: GET 10% OFF

Use Discount Code:

MIN10OFF

A confirmation link was sent to your e-mail.
Please check your mailbox for a message from support@examcollection.com and follow the directions.

Next

Download Free Demo of VCE Exam Simulator

Experience Avanset VCE Exam Simulator for yourself.

Simply submit your e-mail address below to get started with our interactive software demo of your free trial.

Free Demo Limits: In the demo version you will be able to access only first 5 questions from exam.