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Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 29

Question 280

Router A forwards 10.55.0.0/16 to Router B while Router B forwards the same prefix to Router A. Neither has a route to the actual destination. What is the outcome and appropriate fix?

  1. A routing loop until packet TTL expires; correct one or both static routes to a valid destination or remove the bogus path.
  2. Only a DNS lookup failure, because routing tables never use a next-hop route recursively.
  3. Automatic OSPF loop prevention, because even static routes are subject to SPF neighbor validation.
  4. Immediate success through load balancing, because the two routers hold symmetric static routes.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The packets can bounce between routers as each static route points back at the other; TTL limits the loop duration but not its misconfiguration impact.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Name resolution is independent of a forwarding loop for a known IP destination, and static next hops can be resolved recursively.

C:

OSPF's loop-free SPF calculation does not automatically repair manually configured mutually recursive static paths without valid reachability.

D:

Symmetric static routes do not prove a reachable destination. Without a real next hop they produce repeated forwarding rather than useful load sharing.

Question 281

An Ethernet access interface shows line protocol down, increasing CRC errors before it flaps, and the port is not administratively shut. Which first diagnostic best fits this evidence?

  1. Change the default gateway to reduce CRC errors seen at Layer 1/2.
  2. Configure no shutdown as the only fix even though the interface is already administratively enabled.
  3. Recreate the DHCP scope so it can correct damaged Ethernet frame checksums.
  4. Inspect and test cable, connectors, transceiver and physical link quality before changing IP routing.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

CRC errors and flapping often indicate physical signal or media problems; checking cabling and transceivers targets the reported layer and failure pattern.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Gateway selection concerns Layer 3 routing and does not govern how a port detects corrupted Ethernet frames.

B:

A no shutdown command addresses an administratively disabled port. It cannot by itself repair corrupt frames on an enabled unstable link.

C:

DHCP provides address leases; it does not repair defective connectors, line coding or frame-check errors on a physical link.

Question 282

An engineer wants a user-facing switchport to shut down when it unexpectedly receives a BPDU, rather than silently suppressing BPDUs and risking a loop. Which STP guard feature fits?

  1. Loop Guard, because it blocks PortFast ports when any BPDU is observed.
  2. BPDU Guard with the appropriate edge-port/PortFast configuration, causing a BPDU-triggered errdisable condition.
  3. BPDU Filter configured to suppress incoming and outgoing BPDUs without error-disabling unexpected switches.
  4. Root Guard, because it always errdisables a user port merely for receiving any BPDU.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

BPDU Guard protects intended host edge ports by detecting unexpected BPDU reception and disabling the offending interface to prevent switch attachment or loops.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Loop Guard protects non-designated ports that stop receiving expected BPDUs, not edge ports that suddenly receive them.

C:

BPDU Filter can hide spanning-tree information and is not the fail-closed BPDU-received behavior explicitly requested.

D:

Root Guard prevents inferior designated topology changes caused by superior BPDUs; it does not implement generic edge-port BPDU-triggered shutdown.

Question 283

Two directly connected OSPF routers have matching area, hello and dead timers, and their IP interfaces can ping. An ACL between them denies IP protocol 89. Why do neighbors remain down?

  1. OSPF adjacency always requires UDP port 89 rather than an IP protocol number.
  2. OSPF automatically tunnels its hellos inside TCP 179 when protocol 89 is filtered.
  3. OSPF control packets use IP protocol number 89, and the ACL prevents hello/LSA exchange despite IP reachability.
  4. ICMP ping success proves every routed control protocol including OSPF must be allowed.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

OSPFv2 uses protocol 89 directly in IP; denying it can prevent neighbor discovery even when ICMP has a separate permit.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Port numbers apply to protocols such as TCP and UDP. OSPF uses IP protocol 89, not a UDP destination-port 89.

B:

TCP 179 is BGP's session port. OSPF does not silently switch to BGP transport when its own protocol is filtered.

D:

An ACL can permit ICMP while denying another protocol; ping only proves a limited data-plane reachability test.

Question 284

A network operator needs authenticated file uploads and downloads to an IOS device's file repository, and the environment permits FTP but not secure alternatives. Which protocol difference matters compared with TFTP?

  1. FTP supports a username/password session and file operations, while TFTP is a minimal UDP transfer protocol without native login.
  2. FTP operates only over UDP 69, while TFTP uses TCP for control and separate data sessions.
  3. Both FTP and TFTP guarantee encrypted credentials and payloads on untrusted networks.
  4. TFTP provides mandatory per-user credentials and an encrypted command channel for every file transfer.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

FTP includes authenticated sessions and richer file-transfer operations; if security policy permits it, it can fulfill the requested login-dependent workflow.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Standard FTP uses TCP for its control session, while TFTP uses UDP 69 for initial requests and additional transfer ports.

C:

Neither classic FTP nor TFTP encrypts traffic by default. Prefer a secure method such as SCP/SFTP if permitted by the actual environment.

D:

TFTP is intentionally simple and generally lacks a native account-login mechanism or confidentiality protection.

Question 285

A compromised employee account can reach production switch management APIs despite only needing to view test VLAN utilization. Which control best limits lateral movement?

  1. Replace access-control checks with longer descriptive user profile names.
  2. Give the account global network-administrator rights so monitoring queries will not fail.
  3. Disable monitoring alerts so the compromised identity cannot reveal existing incidents.
  4. Limit the identity to the minimum required monitoring permissions and management network scope.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Least privilege limits API operations and accessible management resources, reducing what a stolen credential can change or enumerate.

Incorrect Answers

A:

User profile descriptions have no enforcement meaning unless underlying permissions and network boundaries are corrected.

B:

Broad administrator roles increase the attack surface from a single compromised account and are unrelated to read-only monitoring need.

C:

Disabling alerts lowers visibility and does not prevent the identity from reaching privileged APIs or modifying infrastructure.

Question 286

An IaC pipeline proposes network changes with Terraform. After another engineer manually edits the firewall outside Terraform, a new plan shows unexpected differences. Which state concept explains the detection?

  1. Terraform stores no resource identity and always recreates everything on each apply.
  2. Terraform state tracks managed resource identities and attributes so a refresh/plan can compare reality with configured intent.
  3. Terraform state is merely a copy of shell command history and cannot represent existing infrastructure resources.
  4. Terraform state automatically prevents all manual cloud configuration changes from occurring.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

State connects declared resources with actual managed objects and recorded attributes, allowing a refresh and plan to reveal drift against configuration.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Stateful resource mapping enables incremental changes rather than unconditional recreation of every cloud or network resource at each run.

C:

A shell history file records commands but lacks the managed resource mapping Terraform uses to calculate desired changes.

D:

Terraform does not inherently prohibit administrators from making out-of-band modifications; it detects or reconciles resulting changes according to its workflow.

Question 287

A router has 10.0.0.0/8 and 192.0.2.0/24 entries but needs a route for all otherwise unmatched IPv4 destinations. Which destination prefix defines the default route?

  1. 255.255.255.255/32, because it matches all networks by broadcast behavior.
  2. 224.0.0.0/4, because multicast routes are universal destinations for normal unicast traffic.
  3. 0.0.0.0/0, which matches when no longer destination prefix applies.
  4. 127.0.0.0/8, because the loopback space represents every external destination.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A /0 route has no fixed prefix bits and therefore supplies the broadest catch-all path when more specific routes do not match.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The limited broadcast /32 address is not a catch-all unicast route and does not replace routing-table longest-prefix logic.

B:

Multicast addressing represents group traffic, not ordinary unicast packets toward unknown destinations.

D:

The loopback prefix is reserved for local-host operation and cannot represent arbitrary Internet destinations.

Question 288

An IPv6 host has a valid fe80:: link-local gateway on its LAN but cannot reach its neighbor's on-link IPv6 address. Which protocol/table should be checked before diagnosing remote routing?

  1. Neighbor Discovery (ICMPv6) and the neighbor cache for address-to-link-layer resolution on that LAN.
  2. A remote BGP prefix policy, because direct on-link IPv6 communication requires an external route reflector.
  3. DNS MX records, because IPv6 neighbor MAC addresses are discovered through mail-exchange lookups.
  4. IPv4 ARP entries only, because IPv6 reuses ARP broadcasts to find Ethernet peers.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

IPv6 NDP uses ICMPv6 neighbor solicitations and advertisements to resolve local link-layer neighbors and detect reachability.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Traffic to a correctly on-link neighbor need not traverse a remote BGP domain, so inspect local resolution first.

C:

DNS mail-exchange records are unrelated to local Ethernet destination discovery or IPv6 neighbor state.

D:

IPv4 ARP is not used for IPv6 address resolution; NDP has distinct multicast and ICMPv6 mechanisms.

Question 289

A Cisco access port connects an IP phone with a workstation attached behind it. The phone should use voice VLAN 30 and the PC data VLAN 10. Which TWO statements are valid? (Select TWO.)

  1. The PC must configure its NIC as an 802.1Q trunk and manually tag every application packet to communicate through the phone.
  2. The attached phone can tag its voice frames for VLAN 30 while the PC frames remain on the access data VLAN 10 as supported by the phone.
  3. The switch can configure access VLAN 10 for untagged PC data and voice VLAN 30 for phone signaling/data treatment.
  4. Assigning VLAN 30 only to a trunk allowed list automatically configures the phone to tag voice traffic when the port is in access mode.
  5. Both voice and data must use the same untagged VLAN because one physical switch port cannot classify two logical VLANs.

Explanation

Correct Answers

B:

A compatible IP phone can receive voice VLAN information and tag voice frames while passing workstation traffic as ordinary data frames.

C:

The switch's data access VLAN and voice VLAN settings can distinguish the two traffic classes on a phone-plus-PC port.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Ordinary PCs behind a supported IP phone generally need not tag their own traffic; the phone and switch handle the auxiliary voice VLAN treatment.

D:

Trunk allowed lists concern trunk interfaces, while the access-plus-voice setup requires suitable switch and phone configuration.

E:

Cisco access ports can support an auxiliary voice VLAN alongside the configured data VLAN; the single-cable topology does not force one logical subnet.

Question 290

A router's remote administrative SSH sessions remain open for hours after administrators walk away. Which line setting reduces exposure from forgotten idle VTY sessions?

  1. Enable AAA command accounting for the administrator but leave the idle VTY exec session with no inactivity timeout.
  2. Configure an appropriate exec-timeout under the relevant line vty configuration.
  3. Configure login block-for to throttle new failed SSH authentications without setting an idle-session timeout for authenticated users.
  4. Reduce SSH connection establishment timeout without limiting how long an already authenticated idle EXEC shell stays open.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

The VTY executive timeout disconnects sessions after configured inactivity, reducing the period an unattended shell remains authorized.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Command accounting records actions but does not disconnect an abandoned privileged session. Configure a suitable exec-timeout on the affected VTY lines.

C:

Brute-force login throttling protects the authentication stage. It does not expire a session that remains open after a valid administrator walks away.

D:

The connection or negotiation timer concerns handshake setup. The idle EXEC session lifetime is controlled by the line exec-timeout setting.


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