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Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 25

Question 240

An OSPF deployment uses reference bandwidth 1000 Mbps. A Gigabit interface has a 1-Gb speed and a 100-Mb interface has a 100-Mb speed. Which default cost relation follows from that reference, ignoring minimum-clamp issues?

  1. The 1-Gb interface cost is 1 and the 100-Mb interface cost is 10.
  2. Both cost 1000 because the reference value is copied unchanged.
  3. Interface cost is determined solely by the router ID.
  4. The 1-Gb interface cost is 10 and the 100-Mb cost is 1.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

OSPF interface cost commonly derives from reference bandwidth divided by interface bandwidth. 1000/1000 yields 1 and 1000/100 yields 10 for this setup.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Reference bandwidth sets the numerator; it is not simply used as every interface's cost regardless of link speed.

C:

Router ID distinguishes routers and can break some election ties; it does not determine OSPF cost derived from bandwidth settings.

D:

The lower-bandwidth link generally receives a higher path cost, so reversing 1 and 10 contradicts the stated reference/bandwidth calculation.

Question 241

Wi-Fi clients in one meeting room experience poor signal where a reinforced concrete wall and running industrial microwave equipment lie between the AP and desks. What RF issue should be investigated?

  1. Increase AP transmit power immediately without measuring how much the concrete wall attenuates the signal or whether nearby RF noise limits receive quality.
  2. Switch the AP to the same busy 2.4-GHz channel as neighboring APs while assuming contention is unrelated to the reported poor signal.
  3. Disable 802.11 retransmissions in the access point configuration and assume doing so restores RF signal strength through the concrete wall.
  4. Attenuation and interference along the actual radio path, followed by appropriate survey and placement changes.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Dense materials attenuate radio signals, and nearby emitters can raise interference. A site survey can identify placement, channel and power adjustments.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Power changes may enlarge the cell but cannot remove a reinforced wall or microwave interference and may worsen nearby co-channel contention. Survey the path first.

B:

Channel changes can help if based on a site survey. Blindly choosing an overlapping high-interference channel does not resolve attenuation or RF interference from the stated obstacles.

C:

The wall and interfering equipment affect physical propagation and noise. Suppressing recovery behavior cannot create a stronger usable signal; measure RF conditions and reposition or retune.

Question 242

A network architect removes VLAN 35 from one interswitch trunk's allowed list to isolate a test area. A junior engineer proposes deleting VLAN 35 from the switch database, which would disrupt other local users. What is the narrower control?

  1. Disable the switch's IP default route without altering the trunk.
  2. Change only the trunk allowed-VLAN list for that link while preserving the VLAN database and local access assignments.
  3. Delete VLAN 35 everywhere to stop frames on one trunk.
  4. Change the native VLAN to 35 on all switches.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A per-trunk allowed-VLAN policy limits where VLAN 35 is transported without removing its local presence. Validate other trunk paths and STP.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The IP default route affects routed destinations and cannot prevent tagged VLAN 35 Ethernet frames from traversing the interswitch trunk.

C:

Deleting the VLAN removes or disrupts local membership on that switch, exceeding the requirement to isolate only one link.

D:

Native VLAN changes how untagged traffic is classified and do not specifically remove tagged VLAN 35 from an allowed list.

Question 243

A static network route should reach 10.28.0.0/16, but the router configuration mistakenly names 10.82.0.0/16 via a reachable next hop. Users still fail to reach 10.28 destinations. What should be checked?

  1. Change the next hop to an unrelated DNS resolver.
  2. Duplicate the wrong static route with higher administrative distance.
  3. Correct the static route's destination prefix to the actual required network.
  4. Increase the bridge priority on a switch.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

An installed static route to 10.82/16 does not match traffic headed to 10.28/16. Repair the destination network and verify its intended next hop.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A DNS resolver address is not an appropriate substitute for the actual adjacent router next hop, and does not change the wrong destination prefix.

B:

Copying the same erroneous prefix produces another route to the wrong destination. Administrative distance does not transform 10.82 into 10.28.

D:

STP bridge priority affects Layer 2 path choices; it cannot cause a router to match an incorrect IP destination network.

Question 244

A syslog collector receives device messages from authentication processes and interface drivers. Analysts want to categorize message sources before applying severity filters. Which syslog field provides that source classification?

  1. Facility, which identifies the type or source category of the log message.
  2. VLAN ID, which is always carried in syslog priority metadata.
  3. OSPF cost, which is the source category field.
  4. Severity, which only measures source identity and never urgency.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The syslog facility field classifies where an event originated, while severity separately communicates its priority level. Collector filtering can use both dimensions.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A VLAN identifier may appear in a message body but is not a universal syslog facility category in its standard priority header.

C:

Routing cost influences OSPF path preference and is unrelated to syslog facility numbering or process-type classification in event logs.

D:

Severity levels indicate urgency, from emergencies through debugging, not the facility/source category. Mixing these prevents proper alert routing.

Question 245

An extended ACL must match sources in 192.168.37.0/27. The network mask is 255.255.255.224. Which wildcard mask should be paired with the network address?

  1. 0.0.0.63, matching a /26 instead.
  2. 255.255.255.224, repeating the subnet mask as wildcard.
  3. 0.0.0.15, matching a /28 instead.
  4. 0.0.0.31, the bitwise inverse of the /27 mask.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Cisco IPv4 ACL wildcard bits invert the network mask. A /27 has five host bits, so the final wildcard octet is 31.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Wildcard 63 allows six host bits and matches a /26 block, twice the intended 32-address range for /27.

B:

Supplying the subnet mask as wildcard would make its 1 bits variable and 0 bits fixed, producing a very different match than intended.

C:

Wildcard 15 covers only 16 addresses and is narrower than the desired /27. Half the intended sources would fail to match.

Question 246

A monitoring application invokes a controller API to request a new access-policy intent. The controller then programs the switches using its own device-facing protocols. Which API is application-to-controller?

  1. ARP requests to find an Ethernet neighbor's MAC.
  2. A northbound interface exposing controller functions to applications.
  3. A southbound interface used primarily by controller-to-device programming.
  4. OSPF Hello packets for routing adjacency.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Northbound APIs let external orchestration applications express intent or read controller state. The controller separately translates these requests to the device-facing southbound plane.

Incorrect Answers

A:

ARP resolves local IPv4 neighbors and cannot submit a policy-intent request to the controller's management API.

C:

Southbound methods operate toward the managed switch/router infrastructure and are not the application-to-controller API layer described.

D:

OSPF is a dynamic routing protocol for router neighbor and topology exchange, not the general SDN application intent API.

Question 247

Two alternative OSPF paths reach the same 10.7.80.0/24 route. One consists of costs 8+7+5 and the other of 10+15, with equivalent OSPF route type and reachability. Which path wins?

  1. The 10+15 path, total cost 25, because fewer hops always wins.
  2. The router chooses purely by highest router ID.
  3. The 8+7+5 path, total cost 20.
  4. Both paths are equal-cost because each has at least two links.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

OSPF adds interface costs along a path and prefers the lower eligible total for comparable paths. Twenty is less than twenty-five regardless of the number of hops.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Hop count alone is not the OSPF SPF cost metric. A route with fewer hops can have higher cumulative interface cost.

B:

Router ID can affect protocol identity and DR ties, but it is not the usual preference rule between these different calculated OSPF costs.

D:

Equal-cost multipath requires identical eligible total costs; 20 and 25 are different, so both are not installed as equal.

Question 248

Two Linux containers use separate process namespaces but share the same host kernel rather than booting full guest operating systems. Which virtualization distinction explains their efficient startup?

  1. Containers isolate user-space workloads while using the host kernel, unlike full VMs with separate guest kernels.
  2. Containers are inherently the same as physically separate servers with no shared host resources.
  3. Only a VLAN number defines the container execution boundary.
  4. Each container always boots its own independent hardware hypervisor and kernel.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Container runtimes typically provide process/filesystem/network isolation atop a shared host kernel, reducing full operating-system startup overhead. Controls remain necessary between tenants.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Containers consume shared host CPU, memory and kernel resources; namespaces do not make them fully separate physical machines or eliminate host-level isolation risks.

C:

VLANs can segment container networking but are not the entire compute/runtime virtualization boundary, which includes kernel namespaces and resource controls.

D:

Full guest kernels and virtual hardware are characteristic of many VMs, not a default requirement for each ordinary container instance.

Question 249

A redundant switch link is currently an RSTP non-designated alternate. Its neighbor suddenly stops sending expected BPDUs due to a one-way control-plane failure, creating loop risk if the port transitions. Which feature helps?

  1. BPDU Filter, which suppresses BPDUs so the link seems healthy.
  2. PortFast, which immediately forwards every interswitch trunk.
  3. Root Guard, which only responds to superior root advertisements on designated ports.
  4. Loop Guard, preventing an unexpected forwarding transition on the non-designated port when BPDUs disappear.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Loop Guard can keep a non-designated port from incorrectly becoming forwarding when expected spanning-tree BPDUs stop, protecting against certain unidirectional or control failures.

Incorrect Answers

A:

BPDU Filter suppresses BPDU processing or transmission and may hide the very control information needed to prevent a loop.

B:

PortFast is intended for true edge attachments and can increase loop risk on a redundant switch-to-switch link rather than prevent this condition.

C:

Root Guard addresses superior BPDUs threatening a designated port's root placement. The failure here is missing expected BPDUs on a non-designated port, the Loop Guard case.

Question 250

Two endpoints communicate directly using IPsec ESP transport mode rather than tunnel mode. Which packet property distinguishes this from site-to-site tunnel encapsulation?

  1. Transport mode is an alternative to IPsec and uses only NAT to hide data.
  2. Transport mode generally retains the original outer IP header while protecting upper-layer payload.
  3. Transport mode always creates a new separate outer IP header around the entire original packet.
  4. Transport mode disables integrity and encryption in every ESP configuration.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

IPsec ESP transport mode protects the payload of an IP packet while keeping the original header as the network-layer outer header. Tunnel mode adds encapsulation around the whole inner packet.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Transport mode is part of IPsec and uses negotiated security associations. NAT alone is not a cryptographic replacement.

C:

The new outer IP header is characteristic of tunnel mode, not the transport-mode distinction requested.

D:

ESP can provide confidentiality and integrity as configured in either mode; choosing transport mode does not prohibit those protections.


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