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AWS Certified Advanced Networking - Specialty ANS-C01 Premium File: 306 Questions & Answers

Last Update: Oct 12, 2026

AWS Certified Advanced Networking - Specialty ANS-C01 Training Course: 223 Video Lectures

AWS Certified Advanced Networking - Specialty ANS-C01 PDF Study Guide: 411 Pages

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AWS Certified Advanced Networking - Specialty ANS-C01 Bundle gives you unlimited access to "AWS Certified Advanced Networking - Specialty ANS-C01" files. However, this does not replace the need for a .vce exam simulator. To download your .vce exam simulator click here

Amazon AWS Certified Advanced Networking - Specialty ANS-C01 Practice Test 70

Question 690

An AWS network engineer must address this specific condition: A product team deploys new JavaScript but its CDN continues serving an older asset despite an origin update. Which implementation or operational change BEST meets the requirement?

  1. Use CloudFront origin access control and an S3 bucket policy scoped to the distribution.
  2. Use versioned asset names or a targeted CloudFront invalidation for the changed paths.
  3. Configure a custom CloudFront error response with an approved fallback asset and TTL.
  4. Put the static objects behind a CloudFront distribution with an appropriate cache policy.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Changing an origin file does not automatically replace copies already cached at edge locations. Confirm the change by checking that new requests receive the new script bytes rather than the cached prior release.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A private S3 origin prevents viewers bypassing edge controls through an unrestricted bucket endpoint. In this situation, changing an origin file does not automatically replace copies already cached at edge locations. The proposed change does not ensure new requests receive the new script bytes rather than the cached prior release.

C:

Origin error statuses can be mapped to viewer-facing responses without modifying the origin application. It does not directly achieve the required result: new requests receive the new script bytes rather than the cached prior release. The constraint is that changing an origin file does not automatically replace copies already cached at edge locations.

D:

CloudFront can serve cached objects near viewers without contacting the origin for each request. The needed control instead targets cached objects can remain fresh until their TTL expires or an invalidation is issued; it succeeds when new requests receive the new script bytes rather than the cached prior release.

Question 691

In an AWS networking assessment, two VPCs need full private subnet-to-subnet routing for several applications, but the peering request is rejected because their VPC CIDRs overlap. Which technical explanation BEST accounts for the observed condition?

  1. AWS PrivateLink exposes a supported service over interface endpoints without general-purpose VPC-to-VPC routing.
  2. AWS RAM enables controlled cross-account sharing of supported network resources such as Transit Gateway.
  3. VPC peering does not support overlapping VPC IPv4 CIDR blocks for direct routed peering.
  4. PrivateLink can provide private consumer-to-provider application connectivity without requiring nonoverlapping VPC CIDRs.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A routed peer cannot distinguish duplicate destination CIDRs in separate VPCs. This explains the observed network behavior, which can be checked by verifying that the chosen architecture enables only the approved reachability without ambiguous overlapping routes.

Incorrect Answers

A:

PrivateLink service access is narrower than full VPC peering and can work across overlapping address spaces. For the stated conditions, a routed peer cannot distinguish duplicate destination CIDRs in separate VPCs. The more specific mechanism is VPC peering does not support overlapping VPC IPv4 CIDR blocks for direct routed peering.

B:

Resource ownership and spoke VPC ownership can remain separate while attachments are governed centrally. That property alone cannot account for the reported symptom; a routed peer cannot distinguish duplicate destination CIDRs in separate VPCs.

D:

Full network peering requires nonoverlapping CIDRs, while service endpoints abstract the provider's internal addresses. That property alone cannot account for the reported symptom; a routed peer cannot distinguish duplicate destination CIDRs in separate VPCs.

Question 692

In an AWS networking assessment, two VPCs use the same outbound Resolver endpoint but a domain is forwarded to the wrong corporate DNS target due to a shared rule. Which technical explanation BEST accounts for the observed condition?

  1. Resolver endpoint throughput and scaling depend on provisioned endpoint ENI IP capacity.
  2. Route 53 Resolver endpoint HA requires multiple endpoint IP addresses in appropriate Availability Zones.
  3. An associated private hosted zone may govern the suffix without falling back to public DNS when a matching private name is missing.
  4. Resolver rules bind a suffix to specific target IP addresses and are associated to VPCs.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

A single rule cannot simultaneously express different target destinations for the same suffix without planning. This explains the observed network behavior, which can be checked by verifying that each VPC resolves through its authorized target DNS infrastructure.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A forwarding rule controls names but does not increase packet-processing capacity by itself. For the stated conditions, a single rule cannot simultaneously express different target destinations for the same suffix without planning. The more specific mechanism is resolver rules bind a suffix to specific target IP addresses and are associated to VPCs.

B:

A single DNS endpoint address can become an availability bottleneck and may violate service requirements. That property alone cannot account for the reported symptom; a single rule cannot simultaneously express different target destinations for the same suffix without planning.

C:

Split-horizon configuration can intentionally prevent public answers from leaking into an internal namespace. For the stated conditions, a single rule cannot simultaneously express different target destinations for the same suffix without planning. The more specific mechanism is resolver rules bind a suffix to specific target IP addresses and are associated to VPCs.

Question 693

An AWS network engineer must address this specific condition: A cross-account Direct Connect gateway association is proposed but not accepted by the gateway owner. Which implementation or operational change BEST meets the requirement?

  1. Configure a private VIF to the appropriate virtual private gateway or Direct Connect gateway association.
  2. Create a transit VIF and the intended Direct Connect gateway to Transit Gateway association.
  3. Complete the association proposal and acceptance with approved allowed prefixes.
  4. Use an allowed prefix equal to or broader than the associated VPC CIDR as permitted.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Owning the Transit Gateway does not automatically grant authority to attach another account's Direct Connect gateway. Confirm the change by checking that the intended Transit Gateway association becomes active under both owners' approval.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The virtual interface type determines whether connectivity targets private VPC addresses or public AWS endpoints. The needed control instead targets cross-account Direct Connect gateway associations require proposal and acceptance by the responsible owners; it succeeds when the intended Transit Gateway association becomes active under both owners' approval.

B:

Transit VIF connectivity targets Transit Gateway associations instead of directly attaching every individual VPC. That adjustment does not address the controlling condition: owning the Transit Gateway does not automatically grant authority to attach another account's Direct Connect gateway. Verify the intended Transit Gateway association becomes active under both owners' approval.

D:

VGW allowed-prefix filters cannot force unsupported more-specific VPC routes to appear in BGP. In this situation, owning the Transit Gateway does not automatically grant authority to attach another account's Direct Connect gateway. The proposed change does not ensure the intended Transit Gateway association becomes active under both owners' approval.

Question 694

In an AWS networking assessment, an application uses a VPN path with lower effective MTU and suffers stalled transfers after enabling large payloads. Which technical explanation BEST accounts for the observed condition?

  1. Jumbo frame benefits require consistent supported MTU across relevant end-to-end devices and links.
  2. Load-balancer distribution cannot create backend application capacity by itself.
  3. IPsec overhead reduces effective packet payload size and can expose PMTU or MSS mismatches.
  4. Route 53 health check integration can remove unhealthy records from eligible weighted DNS decisions.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Encrypted packet overhead can make sizes that fit locally exceed the negotiated tunnel path. This explains the observed network behavior, which can be checked by verifying that large sustained application transfers complete without silent MTU blackholing.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A large AWS frame cannot traverse a lower-MTU intermediate segment without compatible handling. The reported evidence instead concerns IPsec overhead reduces effective packet payload size and can expose PMTU or MSS mismatches: encrypted packet overhead can make sizes that fit locally exceed the negotiated tunnel path.

B:

A healthy NLB can still direct clients to overloaded targets when the target fleet is undersized. For the stated conditions, encrypted packet overhead can make sizes that fit locally exceed the negotiated tunnel path. The more specific mechanism is IPsec overhead reduces effective packet payload size and can expose PMTU or MSS mismatches.

D:

Weights alone can continue steering toward failed endpoints unless health status affects selection. That property alone cannot account for the reported symptom; encrypted packet overhead can make sizes that fit locally exceed the negotiated tunnel path.

Question 695

In an AWS networking assessment, an AWS network team notices increased route flap counts on a Direct Connect link after on-premises network summarization. Which technical explanation BEST accounts for the observed condition?

  1. BGP route preference determines whether recovered hybrid paths resume primary traffic.
  2. BGP path selection requires stable attributes and consistent route advertisement policy to avoid churn.
  3. Gateway route selection and BGP routing preferences influence preferred hybrid forwarding.
  4. Changes to BGP aggregation can alter advertised prefixes, path attributes and routing convergence.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Coarse summarization can hide reachability differences and route withdrawals from downstream peers. This explains the observed network behavior, which can be checked by verifying that the approved summary remains stable and all required subnets are reachable.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Failback requires explicit routing preference rather than assuming an active link automatically dominates. That property alone cannot account for the reported symptom; coarse summarization can hide reachability differences and route withdrawals from downstream peers.

B:

Competing identical prefixes with unstable attributes can produce repeated forwarding changes. For the stated conditions, coarse summarization can hide reachability differences and route withdrawals from downstream peers. The more specific mechanism is changes to BGP aggregation can alter advertised prefixes, path attributes and routing convergence.

C:

Multiple healthy links can compete for the same destination; configuration controls the selected route. The decisive technical distinction is changes to BGP aggregation can alter advertised prefixes, path attributes and routing convergence; coarse summarization can hide reachability differences and route withdrawals from downstream peers.

Question 696

In an AWS networking assessment, a security analyst wants to identify original TCP flags across a suspicious short connection but only configured the default VPC Flow Log format. Which technical explanation BEST accounts for the observed condition?

  1. Flow logs capture network tuple and byte metadata, not HTTP application URL path contents.
  2. VPC Flow Logs contain aggregated traffic metadata including bytes and packets over collection intervals.
  3. Extended flow-log fields can include tcp-flags and traffic-path details for deeper classification.
  4. Reachability Analyzer models configured path controls and can identify a blocking security-group rule.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

The default record shape may omit fields needed for reliable SYN-only or RST event classification. This explains the observed network behavior, which can be checked by verifying that new records include TCP flag indicators for the controlled probe flow.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Layer-three/four flow metadata cannot reveal encrypted HTTP resource paths. For the stated conditions, the default record shape may omit fields needed for reliable SYN-only or RST event classification. The more specific mechanism is extended flow-log fields can include tcp-flags and traffic-path details for deeper classification.

B:

Aggregation windows combine multiple packets from a flow into one record. The decisive technical distinction is extended flow-log fields can include tcp-flags and traffic-path details for deeper classification; the default record shape may omit fields needed for reliable SYN-only or RST event classification.

D:

A missing allowed port prevents traffic even if subnet routes and ENIs are otherwise present. For the stated conditions, the default record shape may omit fields needed for reliable SYN-only or RST event classification. The more specific mechanism is extended flow-log fields can include tcp-flags and traffic-path details for deeper classification.

Question 697

In an AWS networking assessment, a reviewer sees security-group change events in CloudTrail and expects them to contain every dropped packet caused by the change. Which technical explanation BEST accounts for the observed condition?

  1. CloudTrail management activity records API operations, while flow logs describe network traffic disposition.
  2. Extended flow-log fields can include tcp-flags and traffic-path details for deeper classification.
  3. Traffic Mirroring captures packet-level flow data where the source and target are supported.
  4. Network address translation can change packet source or destination fields across observed hops.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Configuration audit events and network data-plane activity are separate evidence streams. This explains the observed network behavior, which can be checked by verifying that the investigation identifies both the actor's rule change and affected network flows.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The default record shape may omit fields needed for reliable SYN-only or RST event classification. The decisive technical distinction is cloudTrail management activity records API operations, while flow logs describe network traffic disposition; configuration audit events and network data-plane activity are separate evidence streams.

C:

VPC Flow Logs cannot reconstruct full TCP handshake packet order from aggregated records. The reported evidence instead concerns cloudTrail management activity records API operations, while flow logs describe network traffic disposition: configuration audit events and network data-plane activity are separate evidence streams.

D:

Traffic tuples may differ before and after NAT while representing one application connection. The decisive technical distinction is cloudTrail management activity records API operations, while flow logs describe network traffic disposition; configuration audit events and network data-plane activity are separate evidence streams.

Question 698

An AWS network engineer must address this specific condition: A company must reach regional public AWS service endpoints over its dedicated Direct Connect circuit. Which implementation or operational change BEST meets the requirement?

  1. Provide resilient Direct Connect connections in distinct devices or locations and consider VPN backup.
  2. Configure an approved public VIF with valid public routing and BGP information.
  3. Run an approved Site-to-Site VPN or TLS encryption layer over the private connectivity where supported.
  4. Associate the Direct Connect gateway with supported gateways in required Regions and select matching VIF type.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Public VIF traffic uses public AWS addresses even when the physical transport is dedicated. Confirm the change by checking that corporate clients reach the intended public AWS endpoints through the established public VIF.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A redundant hybrid design must address circuit, location and device failure domains independently. That adjustment does not address the controlling condition: public VIF traffic uses public AWS addresses even when the physical transport is dedicated. Verify corporate clients reach the intended public AWS endpoints through the established public VIF.

C:

A dedicated physical path reduces internet exposure but is not itself equivalent to IPsec confidentiality. In this situation, public VIF traffic uses public AWS addresses even when the physical transport is dedicated. The proposed change does not ensure corporate clients reach the intended public AWS endpoints through the established public VIF.

D:

The gateway decouples connection location from eligible attached private networks under documented rules. The needed control instead targets a public virtual interface provides BGP routing to supported public AWS service prefixes; it succeeds when corporate clients reach the intended public AWS endpoints through the established public VIF.

Question 699

In an AWS networking assessment, a company needs PTR reverse lookups for private network addresses used by on-premises monitoring. Which technical explanation BEST accounts for the observed condition?

  1. Hybrid on-premises-to-AWS queries require an inbound Resolver endpoint, not an outbound endpoint.
  2. Reverse DNS requires an appropriate in-addr.arpa or ip6.arpa zone or delegated resolver authority.
  3. Cross-account private hosted zone associations require an authorized association workflow.
  4. VPC DNS settings affect the resolver capabilities used by private hosted zones.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Forward hostname A records do not automatically create reverse PTR data for every address. This explains the observed network behavior, which can be checked by verifying that the monitoring resolver obtains the expected PTR records for selected internal IPs.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inbound and outbound endpoint directions describe where queries enter or leave the VPC DNS service. That property alone cannot account for the reported symptom; forward hostname A records do not automatically create reverse PTR data for every address.

C:

Private zone visibility follows VPC associations rather than AWS organization membership alone. The decisive technical distinction is reverse DNS requires an appropriate in-addr.arpa or ip6.arpa zone or delegated resolver authority; forward hostname A records do not automatically create reverse PTR data for every address.

D:

A correct zone association cannot produce working client resolution when needed VPC DNS support is disabled. For the stated conditions, forward hostname A records do not automatically create reverse PTR data for every address. The more specific mechanism is reverse DNS requires an appropriate in-addr.arpa or ip6.arpa zone or delegated resolver authority.

Question 700

An AWS network engineer must address this specific condition: An on-premises DNS administrator expects a public Route 53 CNAME target to be resolved as a private address in an unrelated private hosted zone. Which implementation or operational change BEST meets the requirement?

  1. Publish the intended public records or implement a controlled split-view internal DNS design.
  2. Configure a reverse DNS forwarding rule or private zone for the needed address range.
  3. Point the on-premises conditional forwarder to the inbound Resolver endpoint addresses.
  4. Authorize and associate the selected application VPCs to the central private hosted zone.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Private zone associations determine internal visibility independently of public recursive resolution. Confirm the change by checking that public and internal clients each obtain only the addresses intended for their resolver contexts.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Forward hostname A records do not automatically create reverse PTR data for every address. The needed control instead targets a public CNAME does not automatically cross into private hosted zone scope for internet resolvers; it succeeds when public and internal clients each obtain only the addresses intended for their resolver contexts.

C:

Inbound and outbound endpoint directions describe where queries enter or leave the VPC DNS service. It does not directly achieve the required result: public and internal clients each obtain only the addresses intended for their resolver contexts. The constraint is that private zone associations determine internal visibility independently of public recursive resolution.

D:

Private zone visibility follows VPC associations rather than AWS organization membership alone. The needed control instead targets a public CNAME does not automatically cross into private hosted zone scope for internet resolvers; it succeeds when public and internal clients each obtain only the addresses intended for their resolver contexts.


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