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AWS Certified Advanced Networking - Specialty ANS-C01 Premium File: 306 Questions & Answers

Last Update: Oct 12, 2026

AWS Certified Advanced Networking - Specialty ANS-C01 Training Course: 223 Video Lectures

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Amazon AWS Certified Advanced Networking - Specialty ANS-C01 Practice Test 58

Question 570

In an AWS networking assessment, an ALB target group stays unhealthy even though its EC2 instances are running and can reach the internet. Which technical explanation BEST accounts for the observed condition?

  1. An ALB health check evaluates target responses on the configured protocol, port, and path.
  2. Client-IP preservation depends on NLB protocol and target-group configuration.
  3. ALB target group stickiness can route a client session to the same eligible target subject to configured conditions.
  4. ALB target-group deregistration delay controls connection draining behavior during removal.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Instance running state is distinct from the health check HTTP response required by the target group. This explains the observed network behavior, which can be checked by verifying that targets become healthy when the designated health endpoint returns an expected response.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The source identity visible to a target can differ based on transport and load-balancing configuration. The decisive technical distinction is an ALB health check evaluates target responses on the configured protocol, port, and path; instance running state is distinct from the health check HTTP response required by the target group.

C:

Sticky sessions influence load distribution but do not replace external durable session storage. The reported evidence instead concerns an ALB health check evaluates target responses on the configured protocol, port, and path: instance running state is distinct from the health check HTTP response required by the target group.

D:

Deregistering a target can allow in-flight work to finish rather than immediately interrupting every request. For the stated conditions, instance running state is distinct from the health check HTTP response required by the target group. The more specific mechanism is an ALB health check evaluates target responses on the configured protocol, port, and path.

Question 571

An AWS network engineer must address this specific condition: A VPN tunnel metric falls from one to zero but a CloudWatch alarm does not notify until several evaluation periods pass. Which implementation or operational change BEST meets the requirement?

  1. Trace backend response time and timeout settings alongside application dependencies.
  2. Add an approved NACL rule for the required ephemeral response ports and direction.
  3. Set approved CloudWatch Logs or S3 lifecycle retention for the required audit period.
  4. Adjust the alarm threshold, period and evaluation requirements to the incident response objective.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Delay can result from alarm evaluation settings even when metrics correctly report a failure. Confirm the change by checking that a controlled tunnel drop triggers the expected alert within the documented evaluation window.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Load-balancer target timing and application processing can exceed idle or response timeout limits. In this situation, delay can result from alarm evaluation settings even when metrics correctly report a failure. The proposed change does not ensure a controlled tunnel drop triggers the expected alert within the documented evaluation window.

B:

Unlike stateful security groups, NACLs do not automatically permit return packets for an allowed request. In this situation, delay can result from alarm evaluation settings even when metrics correctly report a failure. The proposed change does not ensure a controlled tunnel drop triggers the expected alert within the documented evaluation window.

C:

Generating records does not guarantee they remain accessible for regulatory evidence duration. It does not directly achieve the required result: a controlled tunnel drop triggers the expected alert within the documented evaluation window. The constraint is that delay can result from alarm evaluation settings even when metrics correctly report a failure.

Question 572

An AWS network engineer must address this specific condition: A spoke uses a Transit Gateway route-table propagation but sends traffic to a second spoke that was not propagated into its associated table. Which implementation or operational change BEST meets the requirement?

  1. Review the service quotas and redesign attachment or route aggregation before onboarding more VPCs.
  2. Configure static routes in the relevant Transit Gateway route tables for remote Region prefixes.
  3. Enable authorized propagation to the correct associated TGW table or add a supported static route.
  4. Install the specific private destination route to the intended local or approved next hop.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A route propagated into one TGW table may be invisible to another attachment using a different table. Confirm the change by checking that the missing destination prefix appears in the intended route table and traffic succeeds.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Central hubs still have finite limits; simply adding spokes cannot exceed those boundaries safely. That adjustment does not address the controlling condition: a route propagated into one TGW table may be invisible to another attachment using a different table. Verify the missing destination prefix appears in the intended route table and traffic succeeds.

B:

TGW peering does not automatically propagate all local routes between peer gateways. That adjustment does not address the controlling condition: a route propagated into one TGW table may be invisible to another attachment using a different table. Verify the missing destination prefix appears in the intended route table and traffic succeeds.

D:

A default route to a transit hub need not override longer-prefix routes for internal networks. It does not directly achieve the required result: the missing destination prefix appears in the intended route table and traffic succeeds. The constraint is that a route propagated into one TGW table may be invisible to another attachment using a different table.

Question 573

In an AWS networking assessment, an infrastructure stack creates Route 53 resolver endpoints with private subnet IDs copied from another AWS Region. Which technical explanation BEST accounts for the observed condition?

  1. CDK deployments rely on explicit AWS account and Region environment context for targeted resources.
  2. EventBridge can route supported CloudTrail management events to a policy review target.
  3. Postdeployment CloudFormation stack status does not continuously prevent all manual resource drift.
  4. Region-specific subnet and resource identifiers must be resolved in the deployment target's environment.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Subnets and network interface IDs are scoped to a VPC and Region, not globally interchangeable. This explains the observed network behavior, which can be checked by verifying that resolver endpoints deploy into the intended Region's eligible private subnets.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A reusable CDK app can deploy to different accounts unless the target is controlled. That property alone cannot account for the reported symptom; subnets and network interface IDs are scoped to a VPC and Region, not globally interchangeable.

B:

Event-driven notifications observe resource modifications instead of waiting for scheduled inventory scans. For the stated conditions, subnets and network interface IDs are scoped to a VPC and Region, not globally interchangeable. The more specific mechanism is region-specific subnet and resource identifiers must be resolved in the deployment target's environment.

C:

A completed stack records one deployment state rather than permanently locking every operator console. For the stated conditions, subnets and network interface IDs are scoped to a VPC and Region, not globally interchangeable. The more specific mechanism is region-specific subnet and resource identifiers must be resolved in the deployment target's environment.

Question 574

In an AWS networking assessment, a hosted zone exists in Route 53 but internet users still get answers from the old DNS host. Which technical explanation BEST accounts for the observed condition?

  1. Route 53 private hosted zone visibility depends on explicit associations with the querying VPCs.
  2. Route 53 health-aware failover requires a routing policy and health checks that participate in record selection.
  3. Split-horizon DNS can use a public hosted zone and an associated private hosted zone for the same namespace.
  4. Public DNS delegation depends on the registrar's authoritative name-server configuration.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Creating records in an unused hosted zone does not cause global resolvers to query it automatically. This explains the observed network behavior, which can be checked by verifying that public recursive queries reach Route 53 authoritative servers and return the intended records.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Publishing a private hosted zone alone does not expose its records to every VPC in an organization. The decisive technical distinction is public DNS delegation depends on the registrar's authoritative name-server configuration; creating records in an unused hosted zone does not cause global resolvers to query it automatically.

B:

Simple routing alone does not make Route 53 suppress failed records based on application health. For the stated conditions, creating records in an unused hosted zone does not cause global resolvers to query it automatically. The more specific mechanism is public DNS delegation depends on the registrar's authoritative name-server configuration.

C:

VPC Resolver may use associated private records while public internet resolvers use the public delegation. That property alone cannot account for the reported symptom; creating records in an unused hosted zone does not cause global resolvers to query it automatically.

Question 575

In an AWS networking assessment, a public ALB has a trusted certificate but accepts TLS handshakes with weak client authentication controls. Which technical explanation BEST accounts for the observed condition?

  1. Publicly trusted ACM DNS validation requires the validation CNAME to be publicly resolvable as intended.
  2. TLS server certificate validation alone does not require clients to present certificates.
  3. TLS hostname validation requires the requested host to be covered by the certificate's SAN entries.
  4. A valid server certificate chain and matching hostname are necessary for trusted TLS connections.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Mutual TLS verifies client certificate identity separately from the listener's server certificate. This explains the observed network behavior, which can be checked by verifying that requests without approved client certificates are denied and valid clients authenticate.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A private DNS record invisible to ACM's validation resolvers cannot prove public domain control. The reported evidence instead concerns TLS server certificate validation alone does not require clients to present certificates: mutual TLS verifies client certificate identity separately from the listener's server certificate.

C:

A certificate for example.com does not necessarily cover api.sub.example.com without a matching SAN or wildcard. The reported evidence instead concerns TLS server certificate validation alone does not require clients to present certificates: mutual TLS verifies client certificate identity separately from the listener's server certificate.

D:

HTTPS transport encryption does not establish server identity when its certificate is invalid or expired. For the stated conditions, mutual TLS verifies client certificate identity separately from the listener's server certificate. The more specific mechanism is TLS server certificate validation alone does not require clients to present certificates.

Question 576

In an AWS networking assessment, a partner's interface endpoint was recreated and now uses new endpoint ENI addresses, but private DNS points to old records. Which technical explanation BEST accounts for the observed condition?

  1. Interface endpoint replacement can change endpoint-specific DNS names and network interface addresses.
  2. VPC route tables can retain unusable next-hop targets when network components are removed.
  3. Multihomed EC2 routing requires operating-system source routing consistent with VPC interface paths.
  4. Attachment replacement can change propagation and association settings unless restored explicitly.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

PrivateLink connectivity should rely on supported endpoint DNS rather than hardcoded ENI addresses. This explains the observed network behavior, which can be checked by verifying that partner API DNS resolves the current endpoint and the private request succeeds.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A route marked blackhole cannot carry IPv4 outbound traffic regardless of instance state. The decisive technical distinction is interface endpoint replacement can change endpoint-specific DNS names and network interface addresses; privateLink connectivity should rely on supported endpoint DNS rather than hardcoded ENI addresses.

C:

Multiple interfaces do not automatically guarantee symmetric operating-system return paths. The reported evidence instead concerns interface endpoint replacement can change endpoint-specific DNS names and network interface addresses: privateLink connectivity should rely on supported endpoint DNS rather than hardcoded ENI addresses.

D:

A new attachment ID is not automatically equivalent to an old one for route visibility. The decisive technical distinction is interface endpoint replacement can change endpoint-specific DNS names and network interface addresses; privateLink connectivity should rely on supported endpoint DNS rather than hardcoded ENI addresses.

Question 577

An AWS network engineer must address this specific condition: An enterprise needs to record which VPC attempted to resolve prohibited names while preserving account-level evidence. Which implementation or operational change BEST meets the requirement?

  1. Associate the proper conditional forwarding rule with each authorized source VPC.
  2. Create the needed internal record or revise the split-view naming design.
  3. Authorize and associate the selected application VPCs to the central private hosted zone.
  4. Create a governed query-log configuration and associate the relevant VPCs.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Configuring a log destination alone does not start collection from unassociated VPC resolvers. Confirm the change by checking that events from every intended VPC appear in the central query log.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Creating a rule on a shared outbound endpoint does not cause every VPC to use it automatically. The needed control instead targets Route 53 Resolver query logging associations determine which VPC DNS queries are delivered to the log destination; it succeeds when events from every intended VPC appear in the central query log.

B:

Split-horizon configuration can intentionally prevent public answers from leaking into an internal namespace. The needed control instead targets Route 53 Resolver query logging associations determine which VPC DNS queries are delivered to the log destination; it succeeds when events from every intended VPC appear in the central query log.

C:

Private zone visibility follows VPC associations rather than AWS organization membership alone. The needed control instead targets Route 53 Resolver query logging associations determine which VPC DNS queries are delivered to the log destination; it succeeds when events from every intended VPC appear in the central query log.

Question 578

In an AWS networking assessment, flow logs are configured on a VPC but their delivery role lacks permission to publish to CloudWatch Logs. Which technical explanation BEST accounts for the observed condition?

  1. CloudWatch missing-data alarm behavior can mask log delivery failures if configured inappropriately.
  2. VPC Flow Logs need appropriate log delivery IAM permission and destination configuration.
  3. Flow Logs show traffic dispositions, whereas CloudTrail management events attribute NACL configuration API calls.
  4. CloudFront standard logs report viewer request metadata for supported distributions.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A successfully created flow-log resource can fail to deliver records when its sink authorization is missing. This explains the observed network behavior, which can be checked by verifying that new flow records arrive in the expected log group with the correct source VPC metadata.

Incorrect Answers

A:

No telemetry can indicate a broken collection pipeline rather than a perfectly healthy network. That property alone cannot account for the reported symptom; a successfully created flow-log resource can fail to deliver records when its sink authorization is missing.

C:

Traffic logs cannot identify the API principal responsible for a policy change by themselves. That property alone cannot account for the reported symptom; a successfully created flow-log resource can fail to deliver records when its sink authorization is missing.

D:

Edge delivery requests can bypass origin logs on cache hits, so origin-only auditing is incomplete. The reported evidence instead concerns VPC Flow Logs need appropriate log delivery IAM permission and destination configuration: a successfully created flow-log resource can fail to deliver records when its sink authorization is missing.

Question 579

An AWS network engineer must address this specific condition: An application uses Site-to-Site VPN but policy requires verifying the public application server identity at layer seven as well. Which implementation or operational change BEST meets the requirement?

  1. Enforce valid HTTPS/TLS certificate verification for the application inside the VPN.
  2. Attach the matching additional certificates to the ALB listener's certificate list.
  3. Require HTTPS-only origin protocol policy and validate origin certificate trust.
  4. Require HTTPS-only or an appropriate redirect-to-HTTPS policy for sensitive viewer paths.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Network peer authentication cannot independently prove that a particular HTTPS hostname is the intended app server. Confirm the change by checking that clients accept only the approved application certificate despite using a working VPN tunnel.

Incorrect Answers

B:

SNI allows selection of a certificate by requested hostname, not by target group alone. The needed control instead targets IPsec protects a network tunnel but does not replace application-layer TLS identity verification; it succeeds when clients accept only the approved application certificate despite using a working VPN tunnel.

C:

Secure viewer-to-edge traffic does not protect origin traffic when the origin connection remains cleartext. The needed control instead targets IPsec protects a network tunnel but does not replace application-layer TLS identity verification; it succeeds when clients accept only the approved application certificate despite using a working VPN tunnel.

D:

An origin secured by TLS does not protect the client-to-edge leg if HTTP remains allowed. That adjustment does not address the controlling condition: network peer authentication cannot independently prove that a particular HTTPS hostname is the intended app server. Verify clients accept only the approved application certificate despite using a working VPN tunnel.

Question 580

In an AWS networking assessment, an administrator attempts to restrict all outbound traffic by removing security-group inbound rules only. Which technical explanation BEST accounts for the observed condition?

  1. Interface endpoint ENI security groups can restrict client traffic to specific approved sources.
  2. Network ACLs are stateless and require independent rules for inbound requests and outbound responses.
  3. Network ACL rules are evaluated in ascending rule-number order with first-match handling.
  4. Security group egress and ingress permissions are configured independently for new flows.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Removing ingress permissions alone does not stop instances initiating outbound connections. This explains the observed network behavior, which can be checked by verifying that unauthorized new outbound attempts fail while required egress remains permitted.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Endpoint private addressing does not automatically enforce least-privilege client access. For the stated conditions, removing ingress permissions alone does not stop instances initiating outbound connections. The more specific mechanism is security group egress and ingress permissions are configured independently for new flows.

B:

A successful inbound rule does not automatically authorize reply packets under a stateless ACL. The reported evidence instead concerns security group egress and ingress permissions are configured independently for new flows: removing ingress permissions alone does not stop instances initiating outbound connections.

C:

A broad earlier deny can supersede a later allow despite permissive security groups. The reported evidence instead concerns security group egress and ingress permissions are configured independently for new flows: removing ingress permissions alone does not stop instances initiating outbound connections.


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