Cisco 300-810 Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions

Question 1:

In a BGP network, what is the effect of configuring the neighbor x.x.x.x route-map MAP_NAME in command on a Cisco router?

A. It applies the route map to outbound updates sent to the neighbor.

B. It applies the route map to inbound routes received from the neighbor.

C. It applies the route map to both inbound and outbound routes for the neighbor.

D. It applies the route map only to routes originated locally on the router.

Answer: B

Explanation:

The neighbor x.x.x.x route-map MAP_NAME in command in Cisco BGP configuration applies a route map to routes received from a specified neighbor. This means the route map processes inbound routing updates before they are installed into the BGP routing table or advertised further.

Understanding how route maps interact with BGP neighbors is critical for controlling routing policies, such as filtering routes, modifying attributes like local preference, MED, or setting communities. When you use the keyword in, it tells the router to evaluate the route map on incoming updates from that neighbor. Conversely, using out applies the route map to updates sent to that neighbor.

Option A is incorrect because that describes out, not in. Option C is wrong because you must explicitly specify in or out — the route map is not automatically applied in both directions. Option D is incorrect because the command affects routes received from the neighbor, not only locally originated routes.

For example, if you want to filter certain routes from being accepted from a neighbor, you would use an inbound route map. If you want to modify attributes of routes sent to the neighbor, you would use an outbound route map.

In BGP policy design and troubleshooting, correct use of route maps with in or out is essential to enforce intended routing policies, prevent routing loops, or optimize path selection.

Question 2:

Which BGP attribute is primarily used to influence path selection among multiple routes to the same destination within the local AS?

A. AS Path

B. Local Preference

C. MED (Multi-Exit Discriminator)

D. Next Hop

Answer: B

Explanation:

The Local Preference attribute is used within a BGP autonomous system (AS) to influence the selection of the best path among multiple routes to the same destination. It is a well-known discretionary attribute that routers use to decide which outbound path should be preferred for traffic leaving the AS.

Local Preference is propagated to all BGP routers within the same AS and is typically configured on border routers to indicate preferred exit points. A higher local preference value means the route is preferred. For example, if you have multiple connections to the internet, you can set a higher local preference on one link to prefer it as the exit path.

Option A, the AS Path attribute, is used primarily for loop prevention and path selection between autonomous systems, preferring paths with the shortest AS path length. Option C, the MED attribute, is used to influence inbound traffic into an AS from neighboring ASes by signaling a preferred entry point, but it is less influential than local preference within the AS. Option D, Next Hop, is important for routing reachability but does not directly influence path preference.

Understanding how BGP attributes affect path selection is crucial for managing traffic flow, achieving redundancy, and optimizing network performance. Local preference is a powerful tool for controlling outbound traffic from your AS, while MED and AS path influence other aspects of BGP routing decisions.

Mastering these attributes and how to configure them helps you pass Cisco 300-810, as this exam tests your knowledge on advanced BGP routing and policy controls.

Question 3:

When configuring Cisco IM and Presence with automatic fallback, how long does the Server Recovery Manager (SRM) wait after detecting a service or server failure before initiating the automatic fallback process?

A. 10 minutes
B. 20 minutes
C. 30 minutes
D. 1 hour

Answer: C

Explanation:

Cisco Instant Messaging and Presence (IM and Presence) is a vital component in unified communication platforms, offering features like real-time messaging and user availability status. Ensuring high availability is critical in such systems, and Cisco employs a Server Recovery Manager (SRM) service to maintain service continuity.

The SRM is responsible for monitoring the health of servers and services. When a failure occurs—whether a server crash or a critical service stoppage—the SRM does not immediately trigger fallback to backup resources. Instead, it waits for a specific amount of time to confirm whether the failure is temporary or persistent. This delay helps avoid unnecessary failovers due to brief network glitches or transient problems.

The default wait time for the SRM before initiating automatic fallback is 30 minutes. This interval is carefully chosen to balance responsiveness with stability. Waiting less than 30 minutes might cause the system to react to fleeting issues unnecessarily, resulting in frequent failovers. Conversely, waiting longer could increase downtime, impacting user experience.

If the failed service or server remains unresponsive for the full 30-minute period, the SRM activates automatic fallback. This process reroutes affected services to a backup server, maintaining operational continuity with minimal user disruption. The fallback is generally seamless, allowing users to continue messaging and presence functions without noticeable interruption.

In conclusion, the 30-minute waiting period by the Server Recovery Manager is a strategic threshold that prevents premature failover while ensuring timely recovery actions. This mechanism is key to sustaining high availability and reliability in Cisco IM and Presence deployments, where uninterrupted communication services are essential.

Question 4:

During the installation of Cisco Jabber for Windows, which two command-line options can be specified to configure the application? (Select two.)

A. CISCO_UDS_DOMAIN
B. TFTP_ADDRESS
C. VOICEMAIL_SERVER_ADDRESS
D. SERVICES_DOMAIN
E. TFTP

Answer: A, B

Explanation:

When deploying Cisco Jabber for Windows, administrators often use command-line arguments to customize and streamline the installation. Two critical parameters that can be specified during installation are CISCO_UDS_DOMAIN and TFTP_ADDRESS, which enable the Jabber client to connect correctly to essential backend services.

CISCO_UDS_DOMAIN is used to set the Unified Domain Services (UDS) domain name. UDS is vital for Jabber as it manages presence information, user directory lookups, and other critical services required for communication. By defining the UDS domain at installation, Jabber can properly connect to the infrastructure that supports user presence and collaboration features.

TFTP_ADDRESS specifies the Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP) server address. TFTP servers provide configuration files and user profiles that Jabber needs during registration. Without the correct TFTP address, the Jabber client would fail to retrieve necessary settings and could not function properly within the Cisco Unified Communications environment.

The other options are less relevant for command-line configuration during installation:

• VOICEMAIL_SERVER_ADDRESS is typically configured after installation, within the Jabber client settings, not during setup.

• SERVICES_DOMAIN is not a recognized or standard command-line argument for Jabber installation.

• TFTP by itself is vague and incomplete; the full argument TFTP_ADDRESS must be used to specify the server location.

In summary, specifying CISCO_UDS_DOMAIN and TFTP_ADDRESS during the Cisco Jabber installation process is essential for ensuring the client can properly register and communicate within the organization's communication network, making these two the correct command-line arguments to use.

Question 5:

Which statement best defines the role of an Identity Provider (IdP) server?

A. It verifies user credentials to authenticate them.
B. It grants permissions to users.
C. It is a request for authentication created by a Cisco Unified Communications app.
D. It consists of security tokens passed to the service provider for authentication.

Answer: A

Explanation:

An Identity Provider (IdP) is a fundamental part of identity and access management frameworks, responsible primarily for authenticating users. The IdP confirms a user’s identity by validating their credentials—such as passwords, biometric data, or multi-factor authentication methods—and then issues authentication tokens or assertions to facilitate secure access to various services or applications.

Breaking down the options helps clarify why Option A is correct. The IdP’s main function is authentication: verifying that users are who they claim to be. This verification process is essential to ensure that only authorized individuals gain access to sensitive resources. After authentication, the IdP generates tokens (like SAML assertions or OpenID Connect tokens), which the service providers use to allow user access.

Option B is incorrect because authorization—deciding what a user can do after being authenticated—is typically handled by the service provider or the application itself, not the IdP. The IdP focuses solely on authentication, not permission management.

Option C misrepresents the IdP’s role. While Cisco Unified Communications applications may interact with an IdP, the IdP itself is not an authentication request nor limited to any specific application or vendor. It’s a generalized component used across many systems.

Option D is partly true in that the IdP sends security information to service providers, but this is a consequence of authentication, not the IdP’s defining role. The IdP’s main job remains authenticating users.

In essence, the IdP serves as the trusted authority that validates user identities in a secure, centralized manner, enabling seamless and secure access across multiple systems and applications. Understanding this distinction is critical for implementing effective identity and access management solutions.

Question 6:

What happens to user sessions in Cisco Instant Messaging (IM) and Presence High Availability (HA) when a server failure occurs?

A. After recovery, user sessions stay on the backup server.
B. User sessions do not transfer from the failed server to the backup server.
C. After recovery, the system automatically switches back to the primary server.
D. During a failure, user sessions are moved from the failed server to the backup server.

Answer: D

Explanation:

Cisco Instant Messaging (IM) and Presence systems provide a High Availability (HA) feature designed to maintain continuous service availability, even if a server in the cluster experiences failure. The primary goal is to minimize downtime and ensure that end users experience minimal interruption during such events.

Examining the options clarifies why Option D is correct. When a failure occurs, the HA solution automatically transfers user sessions from the failed primary server to a backup server. This process allows user presence information and messaging sessions to continue uninterrupted, maintaining communication continuity within the organization.

Option A is inaccurate because, once the primary server is restored, the system generally prefers to “fail back” user sessions to the original server to optimize resource usage and performance. User sessions are typically temporary on the backup server during the outage.

Option B is incorrect as one of the main purposes of HA is to move user sessions away from the failed server, ensuring service continuity. If sessions were not transferred, users would face service disruption.

Option C describes failback behavior, which can be automatic or manual depending on configuration. However, automatic failback is not guaranteed in every setup, so this option is only partially accurate and incomplete as an explanation.

In summary, the Cisco IM and Presence HA solution’s critical function is the seamless failover of user sessions to a backup server during failures, minimizing service disruption and preserving user experience. Proper configuration of HA and failback ensures resilience in communication systems, supporting ongoing business operations even under adverse conditions.

Question 7:

What is the primary function of an IoT Gateway in an Internet of Things architecture?

A. To directly connect IoT devices to the cloud without any processing
B. To manage device authentication and security policies
C. To collect, process, and filter data from IoT devices before sending it to the cloud
D. To act as a cloud storage repository for IoT data

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

The core role of an IoT Gateway is to serve as an intermediary device that connects IoT endpoints (such as sensors and actuators) to the broader network or cloud infrastructure. This is best summarized by Option C: “To collect, process, and filter data from IoT devices before sending it to the cloud.”

IoT devices often generate large volumes of raw data, which can overwhelm networks and cloud services if transmitted directly. The gateway performs edge computing tasks by aggregating this data locally, processing or filtering it, and then forwarding only relevant or summarized information to the cloud. This optimizes bandwidth use, reduces latency, and improves response times.

Option A is incorrect because most IoT devices cannot connect directly to the cloud without some intermediary due to protocol differences, network constraints, and the need for local processing. Option B is partially true, as gateways often handle authentication and enforce security policies, but this is a subset of their broader function. Option D is incorrect because the gateway is not a cloud storage device—it interfaces between devices and cloud platforms but does not serve as a persistent data repository.

Understanding the gateway’s role is crucial for the Cisco 300-810 DEVIOT exam since IoT architectures rely heavily on gateways to provide scalability, security, and data management. Gateways often support multiple communication protocols (e.g., MQTT, CoAP), perform protocol translation, and provide local analytics, which is especially important in environments with unreliable connectivity or real-time processing needs.

In summary, IoT gateways act as the bridge that ensures efficient, secure, and scalable communication between distributed IoT devices and centralized cloud systems, supporting the overall functionality and performance of IoT solutions.

Question 8:

Which protocol is most commonly used in IoT environments for lightweight, efficient messaging between devices and platforms?

A. HTTP
B. MQTT
C. FTP
D. SNMP

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

The protocol most widely adopted in IoT deployments for lightweight messaging is MQTT (Message Queuing Telemetry Transport), making Option B the correct choice.

MQTT is designed specifically for constrained environments such as IoT networks where devices have limited processing power, bandwidth, and battery life. It operates on a publish/subscribe model, which reduces network overhead by allowing devices to send messages only when necessary and subscribers to receive messages selectively.

Unlike HTTP (Option A), which is a request/response protocol often too heavy for many IoT devices, MQTT is optimized for low bandwidth and high-latency networks. It supports features like Quality of Service (QoS) levels that guarantee message delivery, retained messages, and last will testament for robust communication.

FTP (Option C) is primarily a file transfer protocol and is not designed for real-time messaging in IoT. SNMP (Option D) is used mainly for network management and monitoring, not general-purpose IoT messaging.

For the Cisco 300-810 exam, understanding MQTT’s lightweight, efficient design is essential because it enables scalable and reliable device-to-cloud communication in diverse IoT ecosystems. Its minimal packet size and persistent session capabilities make it highly suitable for battery-powered or bandwidth-constrained devices.

In conclusion, MQTT’s design aligns perfectly with the requirements of IoT environments, making it the preferred protocol for messaging in IoT solutions and a key knowledge area for the DEVIOT certification.

Question 9:

In an IoT deployment, which of the following best describes the role of edge computing?

A. Sending all raw data from IoT devices directly to the cloud for processing
B. Processing data locally near the IoT devices to reduce latency and bandwidth use
C. Storing all IoT data in centralized data centers for long-term analysis
D. Using traditional servers to manage IoT devices without local processing

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Edge computing refers to the practice of processing data close to where it is generated—in this case, near or on the IoT devices themselves. This approach is becoming essential in IoT solutions because it addresses challenges related to bandwidth constraints, latency, and real-time responsiveness.

Option B correctly describes edge computing as processing data locally near the IoT devices, rather than sending all data directly to the cloud. By analyzing or filtering data locally, edge computing reduces the volume of data transmitted to centralized systems, thereby saving bandwidth and reducing communication delays. This is especially important in time-sensitive applications such as industrial automation, autonomous vehicles, or smart cities, where immediate decision-making is critical.

Option A describes a traditional cloud-centric approach that is often inefficient for large-scale IoT deployments because it can overwhelm networks and increase response times. Option C relates to centralized data storage but ignores the benefits of local processing. Option D incorrectly implies that local processing is not used, which contradicts the fundamental principle of edge computing.

For the Cisco 300-810 DEVIOT exam, understanding edge computing’s role in improving system efficiency, reliability, and security is crucial. Edge devices can execute analytics, run AI algorithms, or enforce security policies without waiting for cloud responses. This decentralized processing also supports resiliency by allowing devices to continue operating during network outages.

In summary, edge computing enhances IoT deployments by bringing intelligence closer to the source of data, which optimizes resource use and improves the overall system’s speed and robustness.

Question 10:

Which security mechanism is most appropriate for ensuring device identity and secure communication in an IoT solution?

A. IPsec VPN
B. X.509 Digital Certificates
C. WEP Encryption
D. Simple Password Authentication

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

In IoT environments, ensuring that devices can be uniquely identified and communicate securely with other network elements is vital for protecting data integrity and privacy. The use of X.509 digital certificates (Option B) is widely regarded as a robust security mechanism for authenticating devices and establishing secure communication channels.

X.509 certificates provide a standard for digital certificates based on public key infrastructure (PKI). They authenticate device identities by allowing devices to prove who they are using cryptographic signatures. Additionally, these certificates enable the use of Transport Layer Security (TLS) protocols, which encrypt data during transmission, preventing eavesdropping and tampering.

Option A (IPsec VPN) is a strong network-layer encryption method but can be resource-intensive and less flexible for large numbers of IoT devices, especially those with constrained capabilities. Option C (WEP) is an outdated wireless encryption protocol with known vulnerabilities, making it unsuitable for modern IoT security. Option D (Simple Password Authentication) is weak and easily compromised, especially in large-scale IoT systems.

For the Cisco 300-810 exam, knowing how X.509 certificates integrate into IoT security frameworks is essential. Devices use certificates to securely onboard, authenticate with gateways or cloud platforms, and establish encrypted sessions, ensuring confidentiality and data integrity.

In conclusion, X.509 certificates offer a scalable, secure, and standardized method for device identity verification and encrypted communication, making them a cornerstone of secure IoT deployments.