Cisco 300-735 Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions

Question 1:

Which statement accurately describes how synchronous API calls behave?

A. They are limited to single-threaded applications only.
B. They halt program execution until a response is received.
C. They guarantee a response within a fixed time frame.
D. They are only suitable for small-sized requests.

Answer: B

Explanation:

A synchronous API call is a communication method where the requesting program sends a call to an API and then waits—pauses or "blocks"—until a response comes back before proceeding. This is a fundamental concept in programming where order and timing of operations matter. The key feature of synchronous calls is that the process making the call cannot continue executing other tasks until it receives the reply.

Examining the options individually provides clarity:

• Option A (They are limited to single-threaded applications only): This is incorrect. Synchronous calls can occur in both single-threaded and multi-threaded environments. In single-threaded applications, the entire program pauses during the wait. However, in multi-threaded environments, one thread can perform a synchronous call while other threads continue running independently. Therefore, synchronous calls are not restricted to single-threaded contexts.

• Option B (They halt program execution until a response is received): This is the correct description. When a synchronous call is made, the thread or process waits for the API to respond before moving forward. This blocking behavior ensures that subsequent code execution depends on the returned data, which can be crucial when later operations rely on the response’s correctness or presence. However, this pause can lead to delays, especially if the API response takes a long time or if network latency is high.

• Option C (They guarantee a response within a fixed time frame): This is false. Synchronous calls do not promise that a response will always arrive within a predetermined period. Response times can fluctuate widely depending on server load, network conditions, or unexpected errors. Timeouts can occur if the response is delayed beyond acceptable limits.

• Option D (They are only suitable for small-sized requests): This statement is inaccurate. The size of the request payload or response does not inherently limit synchronous calls. Large requests can be handled synchronously, but they may cause longer blocking periods, which might impact user experience or system responsiveness.

In summary, synchronous API calls are characterized by their blocking nature—they pause execution until a response is received. This behavior makes Option B the accurate choice.

Question 2:

What kind of information does the API return when the given code is run?

A. An error message with a 403 status code
B. A list of newly created domains in Cisco Umbrella Investigate
C. Details of updated domains in Cisco Umbrella Investigate
D. Status and security information related to domains

Answer: D

Explanation:

When interacting with APIs—especially those designed for security platforms like Cisco Umbrella Investigate—the response returned depends heavily on the operation that the API call executes. Typically, such APIs provide detailed insights about domains, including their security posture and status.

Let’s analyze each option based on what the response might contain:

• Option A (An error message with a 403 status code): A 403 Forbidden status indicates an authorization failure, meaning the user or system does not have the required permissions to access the requested resource. If the credentials are invalid or access rights are insufficient, the API would return this error. However, assuming the code runs correctly with proper authorization, this is unlikely.

• Option B (A list of newly created domains in Cisco Umbrella Investigate): This would be expected if the API call was designed to create or register new domains. Since the question doesn’t specify a creation operation, this is not the most likely response.

• Option C (Details of updated domains in Cisco Umbrella Investigate): If the API call were meant to modify or update domain records, it would return details of these updates. Again, without context indicating an update operation, this response seems less probable.

• Option D (Status and security information related to domains): This is the most plausible answer. Cisco Umbrella Investigate’s API is typically used to query information about domain security—such as whether a domain is safe, suspicious, or known to be malicious. The response generally contains a status overview along with relevant security details, helping users or automated systems make informed decisions.

In conclusion, when querying Cisco Umbrella Investigate using its API, the returned data is most often descriptive, offering insights about domain status and associated security information. Therefore, Option D is the correct answer.

Question 3:

A security engineer is trying to query the Cisco Security Management appliance to obtain details about a particular message. 

What modification should be made to the script to successfully retrieve this specific message?

A. Include the message ID in the URL as a URI.
B. Execute the script and manually sift through the returned data to locate the message.
C. Add the message ID as a parameter in the URL string.
D. Insert the message ID information into the HTTP headers.

Correct answer: C

Explanation:

When querying a Cisco Security Management appliance to extract details for a particular message, the query must be precisely targeted. The correct approach involves passing the message identifier in a way the appliance’s API can interpret and use to return the exact data requested.

Option A suggests adding the message ID as a URI (Uniform Resource Identifier) part of the URL. While URIs do identify resources, appending the message ID directly as a URI path segment is often not the standard or recommended way for filtering specific data in API requests. Instead, parameters appended to the query string are conventionally used to refine the request.

Option B proposes running the script without filtering and then manually parsing the vast amount of returned data to find the desired message. Although parsing the response is necessary to extract details, this approach is inefficient and unnecessary if the request can be targeted correctly upfront. It doesn't address the question about how to modify the query itself to limit the returned data.

Option C is the correct answer because the standard practice in API queries is to include specific identifiers like message IDs as parameters in the URL query string. For example, adding ?message_id=12345 in the URL clearly instructs the server to return details only about that message. This method is widely used to filter responses and retrieve precise data points.

Option D suggests placing the message ID in HTTP headers, which are typically reserved for metadata such as authentication tokens or content type information, not for filtering or specifying the exact resource to fetch.

Therefore, the best way to modify the script for retrieving details of a specific message is to add the message ID as a URL parameter. This ensures that the Cisco Security Management appliance understands which exact message is being queried and returns the relevant data efficiently.

Question 4:

A network operator needs to generate a daily flow report but finds the output overwhelming due to its size. What two modifications can the operator make to the script to reduce the amount of returned data? (Select two.)

A. Add a recordLimit key with an integer value to the flow_data section.
B. Insert a for loop at the end of the script to print each key-value pair individually.
C. Include a flowLimit key with an integer value in the flow_data section.
D. Adjust the startDateTime and endDateTime to cover shorter time spans.
E. Modify the startDate and endDate values to restrict the date range.

Correct answers: A, D

Explanation:

Handling large datasets efficiently is crucial for network operators who generate flow reports, especially when these reports cover extensive time periods or contain many records. Two primary strategies for reducing the volume of returned data are limiting the number of records and narrowing the timeframe.

Option A is correct because including a recordLimit parameter explicitly instructs the system to return no more than the specified number of records. This effectively caps the size of the response, making the dataset more manageable. It helps prevent overload by restricting the amount of data pulled from the server, which is essential when dealing with large-scale traffic data.

Option B involves adding a loop to process and print each key-value pair from the returned data. While useful for parsing and formatting data, this does not reduce the actual volume of data returned by the server. The large dataset would still be fetched first, so this option does not address the root cause of the problem.

Option C suggests a flowLimit parameter, which is not a standard or recognized method in this context for limiting data. Unlike recordLimit, flowLimit may not be recognized or effective, so this option is incorrect.

Option D is also correct because adjusting the startDateTime and endDateTime fields to specify smaller, more precise intervals reduces the scope of data being queried. For instance, narrowing the time window from 24 hours to a few hours naturally decreases the number of flow records generated and returned, making the dataset more relevant and easier to handle.

Option E proposes changing the date range without considering time, which is less precise. Since network flows are often time-sensitive, just adjusting the dates without specific times may still yield a large volume of data. Using precise date and time intervals (as in Option D) is a more effective way to limit data.

In summary, the most efficient ways to control the volume of data returned in flow reports are by setting a recordLimit to cap the number of records retrieved and by narrowing the query’s timeframe with smaller startDateTime and endDateTime values. These two approaches ensure the data is both relevant and manageable.

Question 5:

Which of the following Python expressions will output the string "802.1x"?

A. print(quiz[0]['choices']['b'])
B. print(quiz['choices']['b'])
C. print(quiz[0]['choices']['b']['802.1x'])
D. print(quiz[0]['question']['choices']['b'])

Answer: C

Explanation:

To determine which code snippet prints "802.1x," it is essential to understand how the quiz data structure is organized and how to navigate nested dictionaries and lists in Python.

Option A attempts to access quiz[0]['choices']['b']. This means it looks at the first element of quiz (assuming it is a list), then accesses the 'choices' dictionary inside that element, and finally accesses the value corresponding to key 'b'. If 'b' points directly to the string "802.1x," this could be correct. However, typically, in nested structures, 'b' may itself point to another dictionary, not the string itself. Without more context, this option is unlikely to directly output "802.1x."

Option B tries to access quiz['choices']['b'], assuming that quiz itself is a dictionary with a 'choices' key. However, most quiz data structures are often lists of question dictionaries, not a single dictionary. This means quiz might not support direct dictionary key access like this, and this code could raise a TypeError.

Option C accesses quiz[0]['choices']['b']['802.1x']. Here, quiz[0] accesses the first question in a list. 'choices' is likely a dictionary of choices. 'b' inside 'choices' might itself be a dictionary that contains keys such as '802.1x'. Accessing ['802.1x'] inside this nested dictionary would return the string "802.1x". This indicates that the value "802.1x" is nested one level deeper, which makes this expression the most plausible candidate for printing the desired string.

Option D accesses quiz[0]['question']['choices']['b']. This assumes quiz[0] has a 'question' dictionary that contains 'choices'. This is an uncommon structure since typically 'choices' is a direct key inside the question dictionary. Without knowing the exact nesting, this expression is less likely to directly access the "802.1x" string.

In conclusion, Option C navigates through the expected nested structure correctly, reaching the exact key '802.1x' within the choice 'b', making it the expression that prints "802.1x". Therefore, the correct answer is C.

Question 6:

Which two benefits are provided by using Python virtual environments? (Select two.)

A. They allow compiled modules to be transferred between different operating systems.
B. They enable users without administrative privileges to install packages.
C. They execute application code in an environment that is automatically deleted after use.
D. They facilitate stateful high availability in applications.
E. They isolate package dependencies to avoid conflicts between multiple Python projects.

Answer: B, E

Explanation:

Python virtual environments are widely used tools to create isolated spaces for Python projects, allowing developers to manage dependencies without affecting other projects or system-wide Python installations.

Option A states that virtual environments allow compiled modules to move between different platforms. This is incorrect because compiled modules, especially those with native extensions (e.g., written in C), are generally platform-specific. A virtual environment itself does not facilitate cross-platform portability of compiled code.

Option B is accurate. Virtual environments allow users who do not have administrative or root permissions on a system to install Python packages locally within the environment. This capability is important in multi-user systems or restricted environments, enabling users to manage dependencies without requiring elevated privileges.

Option C suggests that the code runs in an environment destroyed after execution. This behavior is characteristic of ephemeral containers or sandboxed environments, not standard Python virtual environments. Virtual environments persist on disk until manually deleted, allowing repeated use.

Option D claims that virtual environments provide stateful high availability. This is unrelated to what virtual environments do. High availability concerns system architecture and infrastructure design to ensure uptime, which is beyond the scope of what virtual environments offer.

Option E highlights a key advantage of virtual environments: they prevent dependency conflicts by isolating the packages and their versions per project. Without virtual environments, installing packages globally can cause version clashes if multiple projects require different versions of the same library. Virtual environments solve this by creating self-contained directories for each project's dependencies.

In summary, the two true benefits of Python virtual environments are that they allow package installation without administrative rights and prevent dependency conflicts between projects by isolating environments. Hence, the correct answers are B and E.

Question 7:

What is the main role of Cisco Identity Services Engine (ISE) within a network infrastructure?

A. Managing network routing
B. Handling user authentication, authorization, and accounting
C. Managing IP address allocation
D. Monitoring network performance

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Cisco Identity Services Engine (ISE) is a pivotal security solution that provides centralized management for user identity and access control within a network. Its primary function is to handle authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) services, which are fundamental for enforcing security policies and controlling network access.

Authentication ensures that users or devices attempting to connect to the network are who they claim to be, typically through credentials such as usernames, passwords, certificates, or multifactor authentication methods. Authorization follows authentication by determining what resources or network segments the authenticated user or device is permitted to access. Accounting, the final aspect, involves tracking and logging user activities, access times, and data usage, which is essential for auditing, compliance, and troubleshooting.

Cisco ISE allows network administrators to create detailed policies that consider multiple factors like user role, device type, time of access, and location. For instance, a user connecting from a corporate laptop inside the office might receive different access privileges compared to a guest user connecting via Wi-Fi. This granular control enhances security by preventing unauthorized access and limiting what authenticated users can do.

Unlike traditional network devices focused on routing or IP management, ISE focuses exclusively on securing network access through identity-based policy enforcement. This integration helps organizations meet security compliance requirements and improves network visibility.

By centralizing AAA services, Cisco ISE also simplifies network management. Instead of configuring access rules individually on multiple devices, administrators can define policies once in ISE, and it will apply them consistently across the network.

In summary, the primary function of Cisco ISE is to provide robust user authentication, authorization, and accounting capabilities, making it a critical component in modern network security architectures.

Question 8:

In the context of Cisco ISE deployments, what is the role of a Network Access Device (NAD)?

A. Provides high-speed internet access
B. Authenticates users by IP address
C. Sends authentication requests to Cisco ISE
D. Assigns IP addresses to network devices

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

A Network Access Device (NAD) plays an essential role within Cisco Identity Services Engine (ISE) deployments. Typically, NADs are hardware devices such as switches, routers, wireless access points, or VPN concentrators that act as the gatekeepers of network access. Their main responsibility is to enforce network access policies and interact directly with Cisco ISE.

When a user or device tries to connect to the network, the NAD detects this attempt and generates an authentication request which it forwards to Cisco ISE. This request includes identifying information about the user or device, the port or wireless connection being used, and sometimes contextual details like the device’s security posture.

Cisco ISE then evaluates this information against its configured policies to determine whether to grant or deny access. The NAD enforces this decision by either allowing the connection, redirecting the user to a guest portal, or blocking access entirely. This dynamic interaction between NAD and ISE ensures that only authorized users and compliant devices gain access to the network.

The NAD does not itself authenticate users; rather, it acts as an intermediary that passes the authentication requests to the centralized ISE system, which performs the actual verification. This separation allows for scalability and centralized policy enforcement.

Other options like providing high-speed internet (A) or assigning IP addresses (D) are functions typically handled by other network components such as routers or DHCP servers, not NADs in the context of ISE. Similarly, authenticating based solely on IP addresses (B) is an outdated and less secure practice that modern systems avoid.

To conclude, the primary function of a Network Access Device in Cisco ISE deployments is to send authentication requests to Cisco ISE, enabling policy-driven access control and improving network security management.

Question 9:

Which protocol is predominantly used by Cisco Identity Services Engine (ISE) to communicate with Network Access Devices (NADs) for the purpose of authenticating users?

A. SNMP
B. RADIUS
C. DHCP
D. IPsec

Answer: B

Explanation:

In the context of Cisco Identity Services Engine (ISE), the RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service) protocol serves as the primary communication method between ISE and Network Access Devices (NADs) for authenticating users and devices seeking network access. When a user or device attempts to connect to the network, the NAD — which could be a switch, wireless access point, or VPN concentrator — generates a RADIUS request and forwards it to Cisco ISE.

Cisco ISE functions as the centralized AAA (Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting) server in this architecture. Upon receiving the RADIUS request, ISE validates the credentials against its authentication database, which may include external identity stores such as Active Directory or LDAP. Based on this verification, ISE then responds to the NAD with either an acceptance, rejection, or challenge, which dictates whether the user is granted access or must provide additional credentials.

The choice of RADIUS as the primary protocol is due to its widespread adoption in network security environments, its ability to support centralized management, and its compatibility with a broad range of network devices. RADIUS provides a standardized, reliable, and secure method for handling AAA services, which is critical in enterprise networks where consistent and scalable security enforcement is required.

Let’s consider why the other options are less applicable:

• SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) is primarily used for network device monitoring and management, not for user authentication.

• DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) is used for dynamically assigning IP addresses and network configurations to devices but does not handle authentication.

• IPsec (Internet Protocol Security) is a suite of protocols used to secure IP communications through encryption and authentication at the network layer, but it is not a direct communication protocol between ISE and NADs for authentication purposes.

In summary, RADIUS stands out as the key protocol enabling Cisco ISE to authenticate users via NADs, providing a secure, centralized, and efficient authentication mechanism in network access control scenarios.

Question 10:

Within Cisco ISE, which component is responsible for defining the rules that determine what network access or permissions an authenticated user or device receives?

A. Authentication Rules
B. Authorization Policies
C. Accounting Rules
D. Network Access Control Lists (ACLs)

Answer: B

Explanation:

In Cisco Identity Services Engine (ISE), Authorization Policies play a critical role in defining the access control rules that dictate what actions and network resources are available to users or devices once they have successfully authenticated. These policies form a key part of the broader network access control framework by specifying the permissions, restrictions, and security postures applied after identity verification.

When a user or device is authenticated (often via protocols like RADIUS), ISE uses authorization policies to evaluate various attributes such as user roles, device compliance status, time of access, and network location to decide the appropriate level of access. For example, authorization policies can allow full network access, restrict access to certain VLANs, require additional security checks such as posture assessments, or enforce limited guest access.

Authorization policies help ensure that authenticated users receive permissions aligned with organizational security standards and compliance requirements. They work in conjunction with authentication policies, which primarily validate the user’s identity, whereas authorization policies define the scope of allowed activities.

Now, consider why the other options are not the correct choice:

• Authentication Rules are concerned with verifying the identity of users or devices but do not control access permissions after authentication.

• Accounting Rules handle the logging and tracking of user activities and resource usage but do not govern access decisions.

• Network Access Control Lists (ACLs) are traditionally device-level filters that restrict traffic based on IP addresses, ports, or protocols but are not managed within Cisco ISE as access control policies.

In summary, authorization policies in Cisco ISE are essential for enforcing what authenticated users and devices can do on the network, ensuring that access control is granular, dynamic, and aligned with organizational security policies.