Checkpoint 156-835 Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions

Question 1:

In a VSX deployment, which of the following statements does not accurately reflect how virtual systems are managed across appliances?

A. All virtual systems are hosted on the SMO
B. Each appliance in the security group contains all virtual systems
C. All appliances within the same security group share identical VSX configurations
D. Each appliance operates its own distinct set of virtual systems

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

VSX (Virtual System Extension) enables the creation of multiple isolated virtual firewalls on a single physical appliance, commonly used in enterprise-grade Check Point security environments. The main purpose of VSX is to centralize control and maximize hardware efficiency by hosting multiple virtual systems that enforce different policies or serve different departments—all on shared physical infrastructure.

In this architecture, all virtual systems are managed by a central component called the SMO (Security Management and Operations). The SMO is responsible for maintaining the configuration of each virtual system and distributing that configuration to all appliances in a Security Group. This ensures that each appliance in the group operates in a consistent manner.

Let’s examine the options:

• A is correct. The SMO acts as the control hub, containing the configuration for all virtual systems.

• B is also correct. All appliances in a security group have access to and host the same set of virtual systems. This is crucial for load balancing and failover purposes.

• C is valid. A consistent configuration across all appliances ensures high availability and fault tolerance. If one appliance fails, another can immediately pick up the same virtual systems.

• D is incorrect. No appliance in a VSX environment owns or operates exclusive virtual systems. Instead, each appliance runs the same configuration and set of virtual systems as its peers. This design principle is essential to the redundancy and scalability features of the VSX model.

In conclusion, the incorrect statement is D because appliances in a VSX environment do not individually own unique virtual systems. Instead, all virtual systems are shared and consistently replicated across all appliances within the security group for uniformity, fault tolerance, and centralized management.

Question 2:

When deploying two 10Gbps dual-port NICs in a 6800 appliance, which ports should be connected to Orchestrator 1 to ensure downlink redundancy across different orchestrators?

A. Port 1 and Port 2 in Slot 1
B. Port 1 in Slot 2 and Port 2 in Slot 1
C. Any two available ports
D. Port 1 in Slot 1 and Port 1 in Slot 2

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

In a high-availability network design involving two Orchestrators and a 6800 appliance equipped with two 10Gbps dual-port NICs, achieving redundancy is essential. The objective is to avoid a single point of failure and ensure continuous connectivity between the appliance and the orchestrators.

Option D—connecting Port 1 in Slot 1 and Port 1 in Slot 2 to Orchestrator 1—is the most resilient setup. This configuration utilizes ports from two physically separate NICs located in different slots. By separating the ports across hardware components, the design prevents total link failure in the event that one NIC or its associated slot becomes non-functional.

Let’s review why the other options fall short:

• A uses both ports in Slot 1. If Slot 1’s NIC fails, both connections to Orchestrator 1 are lost, eliminating redundancy.

• B connects a port in Slot 2 and another in Slot 1, but it uses Port 2 in Slot 1, which may not offer optimal pairing for symmetric configuration and might add complexity in port mapping.

• C is too generic. Randomly choosing two available ports does not guarantee they are from different slots. If both selected ports are on the same NIC, a single hardware fault could sever both links.

Option D aligns with best practices for intra-orchestrator redundancy. It ensures that connections to Orchestrator 1 are preserved even if one of the NICs, slots, or cables fails. This redundancy ensures consistent downlink availability and is a fundamental principle in designing fault-tolerant network infrastructures, especially in orchestrated environments where consistent communication between appliances and orchestrators is critical.

In summary, connecting Port 1 from Slot 1 and Port 1 from Slot 2 provides optimal redundancy and protects against hardware failure, making D the correct and most reliable answer.

Question 3:

What is the intended function of the RJ-45 ports located on the front panel of the Orchestrator MHO-170 device?

A. Two out-of-band management interfaces for connecting to the Orchestrator
B. An out-of-band management port and a serial console connection
C. High-speed 1Gbps links for use by Security Groups
D. Internal use only; these ports are non-operational

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

The RJ-45 connectors positioned on the front panel of the Orchestrator MHO-170 serve specific and important management-related purposes. These ports are not meant for general network data traffic or internal use; rather, they are designed to support system access and administration. One of these RJ-45 connectors functions as an out-of-band management interface, while the other acts as a serial console connector. Together, these ports provide essential tools for system configuration, diagnostics, and recovery, particularly in cases where the main network path is unavailable.

The out-of-band management interface allows administrators to manage and monitor the Orchestrator independently of the production network. This is crucial in maintaining administrative control even during outages or misconfigurations on the main network. By using a separate management network, this connection ensures that configuration and troubleshooting can still occur without disrupting regular data flows.

The serial console connector provides low-level access to the device via a direct cable connection. This type of access is typically used during initial setup, firmware updates, or when remote management options have failed. It is a valuable fail-safe that allows hands-on interaction with the Orchestrator at the command-line level.

Let’s look at why the other choices are incorrect:

• A: This mentions two out-of-band interfaces but ignores the presence and significance of the serial console.

• C: The RJ-45 ports on the front panel are not designed for high-speed connectivity with Security Groups; those would typically use dedicated data ports located elsewhere on the device.

• D: These ports are actively used for management and are not reserved or inactive.

In conclusion, the correct purpose of the RJ-45 ports is to provide both an out-of-band management connection and a serial console, making B the correct answer.

Question 4:

In which of the following scenarios is it not appropriate to use a splitter with an orchestrator and appliances?

A. Linking a single orchestrator port to multiple Appliances
B. Linking one port on an Appliance to multiple orchestrator ports
C. Connecting one orchestrator port to multiple interfaces on the same Appliance
D. Connecting one orchestrator port to multiple ports on a separate switch

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

A splitter in a networking environment is a device or cable that enables a single physical network port to be used in multiple pathways—typically to either mirror traffic or distribute a signal to more than one endpoint. However, not all uses of splitters are supported or technically feasible, especially when signal integrity, protocol behavior, and device expectations are involved.

Option B—connecting a single port on an Appliance to multiple ports on the Orchestrator—is not a valid use case. This is because splitters are not designed to merge traffic or duplicate signals in the upstream direction. The orchestrator expects dedicated communication links from each appliance port. Using a splitter to fan out one Appliance port to multiple orchestrator ports may cause collision domains, signal degradation, or confusion in routing and addressing, ultimately leading to instability in the network.

Now let’s consider why the other options are acceptable:

• A: Using a splitter to connect one orchestrator port to multiple Appliances is a common practice in some mirrored environments or load-balanced configurations where the same traffic needs to be sent to more than one device.

• C: Connecting one orchestrator port to two different ports on the same Appliance can be useful in setups requiring redundancy or traffic distribution within a single device.

• D: Connecting a single orchestrator port to multiple ports on an external switch can be practical if you're managing traffic flow to different VLANs or segments, provided proper configuration is in place.

Therefore, using a splitter to connect a single Appliance port to multiple orchestrator ports is technically unsupported and likely to result in network performance issues, making B the correct and best answer.

Question 5:

What is the outcome when Network Address Translation (NAT) is applied to traffic on the Management network?

A. The traffic will be dropped and will not pass through correctly
B. The traffic will flow freely without any inspection
C. The Service Management Orchestrator (SMO) will handle the correction and redirect the traffic to the appropriate appliances
D. The Orchestrator will turn off NAT, allowing the traffic to pass without issues

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Network Address Translation (NAT) is commonly used to modify IP address information in packet headers as traffic flows through routers or firewalls. However, when NAT is applied to the Management network—which typically handles sensitive control, monitoring, and configuration communications—it can lead to unintended consequences.

In this scenario, applying NAT to Management traffic disrupts its ability to be properly processed by correction layers or security inspection systems. The Management network is designed to handle traffic in a very controlled and predictable manner. The orchestrator or management systems often rely on unaltered IP information to track, route, and inspect management-related traffic accurately. When NAT changes the source or destination IP addresses, it can interfere with these functions. As a result, the traffic may be dropped due to being unrecognized or considered unauthorized by the receiving system.

Option A is correct because NAT can prevent Management traffic from passing through necessary correction layers, leading to its rejection. This reflects a real-world concern in managed security infrastructures where the integrity and traceability of Management traffic are critical.

Option B is incorrect because Management networks are designed to enforce strict inspection and logging of all traffic. Allowing any traffic to pass without inspection would contradict fundamental security practices.

Option C introduces the idea that the SMO will resolve NAT conflicts. While SMOs manage appliance orchestration, they do not correct address translation errors caused by NAT. They assume that the traffic reaching them has already been properly routed and formed.

Option D is also inaccurate. Orchestrators do not have control over disabling NAT, especially if NAT is implemented at the infrastructure or firewall level. That responsibility lies with the network configuration.

In conclusion, NAT should be carefully managed or avoided on Management networks to prevent dropped packets and maintain secure and traceable communications. Thus, A is the most accurate answer.

Question 6:

If one appliance can manage up to 1 million concurrent connections, how many concurrent connections can a security group with two such appliances support?

A. 2 million
B. 500,000
C. 4 million
D. 1 million

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

In a security architecture where appliances are grouped together to form a security cluster or group, their performance capacities are typically additive—assuming proper load balancing and synchronization are in place. If one appliance can handle 1 million concurrent connections, adding another identical appliance to the group doubles the overall processing capacity.

So, for a security group of two appliances, the total number of concurrent connections that can be supported would be:

1 million connections/appliance × 2 appliances = 2 million concurrent connections

Therefore, the correct answer is A.

Let’s examine the other options:

B (500,000) is incorrect. This would imply each appliance supports only 250,000 connections or that adding a second appliance somehow reduces capacity, which doesn’t make sense in this context.

C (4 million) is also incorrect because it assumes each appliance supports 2 million concurrent connections, which contradicts the stated value of 1 million per appliance.

D (1 million) is incorrect because it only reflects the capacity of a single appliance, not the total capacity when two are grouped together.

The design of appliance-based security systems is often modular, allowing capacity to scale linearly with the number of units added. However, this scalability assumes there are no single points of failure, and the system is properly configured to distribute load across appliances. The orchestration and balancing mechanisms ensure that new connections are evenly shared, preventing any single appliance from being overwhelmed while others remain underutilized.

To summarize, when multiple appliances are part of a security group and work in coordination, their capabilities—such as concurrent connection handling—are cumulative. Therefore, with two appliances that each support 1 million connections, the combined total is 2 million, making A the correct choice.

Question 7:

What is the primary function of the "asg monitor" command in a security group setup?

A. Monitors the health of the entire system
B. This command does not exist
C. Monitors traffic flow on appliances in the security group
D. Displays live cluster status of appliances within the security group

Answer: D

Explanation:

The asg monitor command is a tool used by administrators to keep track of real-time cluster activity and operational health within a Security Group. This command specifically displays the live status of appliances that are part of a clustered security infrastructure, providing detailed information such as appliance roles, synchronization states, failover readiness, and performance metrics. The utility of this command lies in its ability to enable proactive management and diagnostic insight, which are critical in high-availability network environments.

Option A, which claims the command monitors the health of the entire system, is not accurate. The asg monitor command is not intended for system-wide monitoring but is specifically scoped to appliances within a defined security group.

Option B is clearly incorrect, as the asg monitor command is a valid and commonly used command in certain network security platforms like Check Point Maestro, where it is part of the administrator's toolkit.

Option C states that the command monitors traffic, which is misleading. While cluster performance can indirectly reflect traffic conditions, asg monitor does not provide detailed traffic analysis or throughput monitoring. Instead, it focuses on the operational state of the appliances.

Option D accurately captures the core purpose of the command. It provides real-time status on how appliances within the group are functioning — whether they’re active, standby, or facing issues. It helps in identifying problems quickly and ensures the resiliency and synchronization of devices within the group.

In summary, D is the best choice because the asg monitor command is used to view the real-time cluster status of appliances in a security group, enabling better visibility and uptime in security infrastructure.

Question 8:

Two appliances are part of the same Security Group. One appliance is connected via a single downlink, and the other through two downlinks. 

Without NAT or VPN, how does the Orchestrator distribute traffic?

A. 66% / 33%
B. 100% / 0%
C. 50% / 50%
D. 33% / 66%

Answer: D

Explanation:

In a scenario where two appliances are configured within the same Security Group, and each appliance has a different number of downlinks, the Orchestrator plays a crucial role in managing traffic distribution. The principle behind the distribution is based on link availability or connectivity capacity—the more downlinks an appliance has, the more capable it is of handling traffic.

Let’s break it down:

• Appliance A has 1 downlink, and

• Appliance B has 2 downlinks.
  In total, there are 3 downlinks. To fairly distribute traffic based on available paths, the Orchestrator evaluates the relative capacity. Appliance A, with 1 downlink, gets 1 out of 3 portions of the traffic (which equals approximately 33%), while Appliance B, with 2 downlinks, receives 2 out of 3, or approximately 66%.

This allocation ensures load balancing in proportion to the infrastructure each appliance supports. The Orchestrator does not divide traffic arbitrarily or equally unless both appliances have the same number of downlinks. Instead, it intelligently distributes based on available link bandwidth, promoting efficiency and avoiding overloading the appliance with fewer resources.

Option A (66%/33%) is inverted and implies the appliance with fewer downlinks handles more traffic, which is inefficient and incorrect.

Option B (100%/0%) suggests only one appliance is utilized, which doesn't apply here since both appliances are operational and connected.

Option C (50%/50%) might seem fair but doesn’t reflect the true capacity difference between the two appliances. This would risk overburdening the appliance with fewer downlinks.

Therefore, D is correct. The Orchestrator assigns 33% of the traffic to the appliance with one downlink and 66% to the one with two downlinks, ensuring an optimal and balanced distribution.

Question 9:

What determines the licensing requirements for the Orchestrator in a Check Point environment?

A. No license is necessary for Orchestrator operation
B. The Orchestrator is treated as a Management server and licensed accordingly
C. The Orchestrator requires an NGTX license
D. It depends on which Software Blades are enabled on the connected devices

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

When deploying Check Point’s Orchestrator in a network, the specific licenses required are not fixed but are instead dictated by the Software Blades activated on the appliances that the Orchestrator oversees. In Check Point’s modular architecture, Software Blades refer to discrete features like Firewall, IPS, Anti-Bot, and VPN. These features are independently licensed and can be selectively enabled based on security needs.

The Orchestrator plays a central role in managing and integrating these blades across multiple devices. As a result, if certain blades are active on the connected appliances, then licensing for those blades may also need to be considered from the Orchestrator’s perspective. For example, if an appliance is using the IPS or Threat Emulation blade, the Orchestrator must be licensed to accommodate the coordination and policy management for those functionalities.

Option A is incorrect because while some components in a network might not require licenses, the Orchestrator is a management-centric solution closely tied to licensed features—it is rarely license-free.
Option B incorrectly assumes the Orchestrator is identical to a general Management server. While both play administrative roles, the Orchestrator has a specific operational scope and licensing needs that extend beyond typical management tasks.
Option C is also inaccurate; the NGTX license applies specifically to advanced threat prevention technologies, which may or may not be relevant to the Orchestrator depending on its use case. The Orchestrator itself doesn't inherently require NGTX unless it's managing appliances where NGTX features are activated.

Therefore, option D is correct because the licensing of the Orchestrator is conditional upon the Software Blades enabled on the appliances it manages. Licensing needs will scale depending on the active functionality of the connected infrastructure.

Question 10:

Which of the following pieces of information is not typically available from the lldpctl command output?

A. Distribution mode
B. IP address of the Orchestrator
C. Serial number of a connected appliance
D. Model type of the appliance

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

The lldpctl command is a tool used to display information obtained through the Link Layer Discovery Protocol (LLDP), which enables devices on a local network to advertise details about themselves to directly connected neighbors. This information includes hardware specifications, port identifiers, system names, and other identity-related data.

Option A, "Distribution mode," can often be derived from custom TLVs (Type-Length-Value fields) or vendor-specific fields in LLDP messages. While it might not be a default field, network administrators can configure devices to share this type of operational data.

Option C, "Serial number of a connected appliance," is typically included in LLDP messages, especially when using advanced or extended configurations that reveal device identity. The serial number helps administrators accurately track hardware inventory and is often displayed in lldpctl output.

Option D, "Model type of the appliance," is also a common part of LLDP advertisements. The system description field, in particular, may include the model name or number, which can be viewed using lldpctl.

However, Option B, "IP address of the Orchestrator," is not something that LLDP is designed to share. LLDP operates at Layer 2 (Data Link Layer) of the OSI model and is not intended to advertise Layer 3 (Network Layer) information like IP addresses. Since LLDP is used for physical network topology discovery, it does not include IP configuration data, especially for external systems like an orchestrator that may not be directly connected.

In conclusion, although LLDP (and by extension, lldpctl) is a valuable tool for identifying neighboring devices and their physical characteristics, it does not reveal the IP address of management components such as an Orchestrator. Therefore, the correct answer is B.