Veeam VMCE v12 Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions

Question 1:

A Scale-out Backup Repository (SOBR) configured with a single local extent retains daily VMware backups for 31 days and keeps weekly GFS full backups for 14 weeks. Today is March 20. 

If you need to restore a file from a backup made during the week of January 1, where would this data most likely be stored?

A. The performance tier
B. The data is no longer available in the Scale-out Backup Repository
C. The capacity tier
D. The archive tier

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

In Veeam Backup & Replication, a Scale-out Backup Repository (SOBR) allows backup data to be managed across multiple storage locations called extents, typically split into performance and capacity tiers. The performance tier contains recent backups that need fast access, while the capacity tier is designed for long-term storage of older backup data.

This scenario involves two retention policies:

• Daily backups retained for 31 days

• Weekly Grandfather-Father-Son (GFS) full backups retained for 14 weeks

Since today is March 20, backups from the week of January 1 are well beyond the 31-day retention period for daily backups, meaning those daily backups have been moved out of the performance tier.

However, the weekly GFS full backups are preserved for 14 weeks, which covers the backup from January 1, since 14 weeks equals about 3.5 months—placing January 1 well within the GFS retention window.

Because the performance tier holds only recent backups (31 days), older backups falling outside this window are offloaded to the capacity tier, which serves as the long-term retention storage.

The archive tier is typically used when integrating with object storage for very long-term or compliance-driven retention and is not mentioned as configured here.

Therefore, the backup data from the week of January 1 would no longer be in the performance tier but retained in the capacity tier, making option C the correct answer.

Question 2:

Which Veeam feature is best suited to ensure comprehensive backup and recovery of an Oracle database for a photography company that relies heavily on this database storing all company images?

A. Use Veeam Explorer to back up the database and logs daily, with log backups every 15 minutes.
B. Use the Veeam Plug-in for Oracle RMAN to perform daily database backups and back up archived redo logs every 15 minutes.
C. Use Veeam Agent to back up the entire server, including the database, with Consistent Server Backup.
D. Use the Veeam Plug-in for Oracle RMAN to back up the whole host and database daily, including logs.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Backing up an Oracle database that continuously updates and stores critical company data (such as images) requires a solution that not only creates consistent full backups but also protects the database logs for point-in-time recovery.

Let’s analyze the options:

Option A: Veeam Explorer is a recovery tool that facilitates granular restoration of database components but does not perform backup itself. While it supports recovery from backups, it does not manage log backups at short intervals, making this insufficient for continuous protection.

Option B: The Veeam Plug-in for Oracle RMAN integrates directly with Oracle’s native Recovery Manager (RMAN), enabling full daily backups combined with frequent archived redo log backups (e.g., every 15 minutes). This approach ensures both full backup consistency and the ability to restore to any point in time between backups, critical for databases with frequent updates. This solution aligns perfectly with the company’s requirements for data integrity and minimal downtime.

Option C: The Veeam Agent backs up entire physical or virtual servers and ensures consistency at the server level but lacks the deep integration with Oracle’s RMAN. It does not handle database log backups separately, which means it cannot guarantee point-in-time recovery or transactional consistency as effectively as RMAN-based backups.

Option D: Using the Veeam Plug-in to back up the entire host daily lacks the frequent log backup intervals necessary for granular recovery. Although it covers full backups, it does not meet the 15-minute log backup requirement.

Thus, Option B provides the most comprehensive and Oracle-specific solution, combining daily full backups with frequent log backups to ensure complete recovery options, making it the best choice.

Question 3:

Which two operating systems are supported by Veeam Agents for backup? (Select two.)

A. FreeBSD
B. Ubuntu
C. IBM iSeries
D. iOS
E. Windows Server

Correct Answer: B, E

Explanation:

Veeam Agents are designed primarily to protect physical and virtual workloads running on widely used operating systems. Their main focus is to back up endpoints and servers, ensuring data protection across common environments. Let's examine the options to understand which two platforms are officially supported by Veeam Agents.

• FreeBSD: This is a Unix-like operating system often used in specialized environments. However, Veeam does not currently offer agent-based backup support for FreeBSD systems. The product roadmap and documentation highlight support mostly for Linux distributions and Windows platforms rather than FreeBSD.

• Ubuntu: Ubuntu is one of the most popular Linux distributions used in both server and desktop environments. Veeam provides native agent support for Linux, including Ubuntu, enabling backup of both server and endpoint machines. This makes Ubuntu a supported environment.

• IBM iSeries: The IBM iSeries platform (also known as AS/400) runs IBM’s proprietary operating system and is specialized hardware. Veeam does not support agent-based backups for IBM iSeries systems, as these typically require different, vendor-specific backup solutions.

• iOS: Apple’s iOS is a mobile operating system running on iPhones and iPads. Veeam does not support direct backup of mobile devices such as those running iOS. Their agent solutions focus on desktops, servers, and virtual machines, not mobile OSes.

• Windows Server: Windows Server is one of the most widely deployed server operating systems globally. Veeam fully supports agent-based backup for Windows Server editions, both physical and virtual, making this a core supported environment.

In summary, Veeam Agents officially support Ubuntu for Linux backups and Windows Server for Windows-based backups. The other options represent either unsupported platforms or non-server operating systems. Therefore, the correct answers are B and E.

Question 4:

To comply with new regulatory backup requirements, which two actions should an engineer implement? (Select two.)

A. Enable immutability on the NAS storage
B. Add 24 monthly GFS restore points to the backup job
C. Configure a Scale-Out Backup Repository combining NAS and Amazon S3
D. Transfer backups from NAS to a Linux Hardened Repository
E. Enable immutability on the Amazon S3 storage

Correct Answers: A, E

Explanation:

When adapting backup environments to meet stringent regulatory demands, it is crucial to ensure that backup data is protected against deletion or modification for defined retention periods. The scenario involves maintaining immutable backups locally and off-site and satisfying the 3-2-1 backup rule, which mandates three copies of data, two different media types, and one off-site copy.

• Enable immutability on the NAS: Immutability is a feature that locks backup files for a specified retention window, preventing them from being altered or deleted. Activating immutability on NAS ensures that the most recent backups stored locally are safeguarded for at least 31 days as per the regulatory requirement. This directly addresses the need for preventing accidental or malicious modification of backup data on-premises.

• Add 24 monthly GFS restore points: While this step is important for preserving long-term restore points (one per month for two years), it does not directly ensure immutability or data protection against deletion. It relates more to retention policy configuration rather than data security.

• Configure a Scale-Out Backup Repository: This approach offers flexible storage management by pooling different storage types but does not inherently provide immutability or address regulatory requirements about preventing deletion. It focuses on scalability and redundancy.

• Move backups to a Linux Hardened Repository: Hardened repositories offer enhanced security, especially against ransomware, but this is not strictly required if immutability is enabled on existing NAS and cloud repositories. While it improves security, it is not mandatory for compliance here.

• Enable immutability on Amazon S3: Activating immutability in Amazon S3 ensures that off-site backups cannot be tampered with or deleted within the required retention period. This protects the off-site copy required by the 3-2-1 rule and meets the regulation for keeping monthly restore points for two years.

Together, enabling immutability on both the NAS and Amazon S3 ensures backups are protected locally and off-site for the necessary retention periods. These actions directly satisfy the regulation’s requirements to prevent deletion or modification, making A and E the correct choices.

Question 5:

A Veeam engineer has set up a Scale-Out Backup Repository (SOBR) that uses AWS S3 as its Performance Tier. The backup job is configured to keep monthly full backups for 12 months. The engineer wants backups to automatically move to AWS Glacier after 90 days. 

What is the first step the engineer should take to enable this process?

A. Create a Vault in S3 Glacier
B. Add AWS S3 as a Capacity Tier before enabling Glacier
C. Add an Archive Tier with the correct S3 Glacier bucket
D. Change the SOBR Performance Tier to use block storage

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

To achieve the goal of automatically moving backups to Glacier after 90 days, the engineer needs to configure an Archive Tier within the Scale-Out Backup Repository (SOBR). The Archive Tier is a specific feature in Veeam that allows backup data to be moved to cost-effective, long-term storage solutions like AWS Glacier or Glacier Deep Archive.

When you set up an Archive Tier and specify a bucket that targets Glacier storage, Veeam will automatically transition backup files from the Performance or Capacity Tier to Glacier once they reach the defined age (in this case, 90 days). This tiered storage approach ensures cost savings by moving older backups to cheaper archival storage while keeping recent backups quickly accessible.

Let’s analyze the other options:

• Option A (Create a Vault in S3 Glacier): Glacier storage is indeed organized in vaults, but manually creating a vault is not sufficient or necessary for Veeam integration. Veeam manages Glacier access via the Archive Tier configuration, abstracting away the manual vault creation step.

• Option B (Add AWS S3 as a Capacity Tier before Glacier): The Capacity Tier is used to offload backups to standard S3 storage, but it alone doesn’t enable Glacier archival. To move backups to Glacier, an Archive Tier must be added on top of the Capacity Tier.

• Option D (Reconfigure SOBR to use block storage as Performance Tier): Changing the Performance Tier to block storage like local disks or SSDs does not affect Glacier integration. Performance Tier only affects immediate backup storage speed, not long-term archival.

In summary, the correct initial step is to add an Archive Tier configured with the appropriate Glacier bucket, enabling Veeam to move backups to Glacier automatically after the retention period elapses. This setup ensures backups are cost-effectively stored long-term while keeping recent backups accessible.

Question 6:

What is the best definition of a Recovery Point Objective (RPO)?

A. It defines when a backup should be migrated to Object Storage.
B. It specifies how many restore points must be recovered simultaneously.
C. It determines the maximum allowable downtime for an application or workload.
D. It indicates the acceptable amount of data loss for a business or organization.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Recovery Point Objective (RPO) is a critical concept in disaster recovery and data protection strategies. It defines the maximum amount of data loss that an organization can tolerate during an incident such as a system failure, data corruption, or disaster. In other words, RPO determines how often backups or data snapshots should be taken to minimize data loss to an acceptable level.

For example, if an organization sets an RPO of one hour, it means that losing more than one hour's worth of data is unacceptable. Therefore, backups need to occur at least every hour to meet this requirement. The RPO directly influences backup frequency and helps shape the organization’s backup and recovery policies.

Let’s review the other options:

• Option A (When to migrate backups to Object Storage): This describes a storage management or lifecycle policy, not RPO. RPO is about data loss tolerance, not physical backup location.

• Option B (Number of restore points to recover at once): This relates to restoration operations or restore strategies, but RPO does not define how many restore points are needed or recovered simultaneously.

• Option C (Maximum allowable downtime): This is a description of Recovery Time Objective (RTO), which focuses on how quickly systems must be restored after an outage, not the amount of data loss.

• Option D (Data loss tolerance): This is the precise definition of RPO. It sets the threshold for acceptable data loss and drives the frequency of backups or replication needed to maintain business continuity.

In summary, RPO defines how much data loss a business unit or organization can tolerate, making option D the correct answer. Understanding RPO helps companies design backup strategies that balance data protection with cost and operational complexity.

Question 7:

What is the best way for an engineer to perform all necessary tasks in Veeam Backup & Replication without directly accessing the backup server through local login or remote desktop?

A. Use SSH to remotely connect to the Veeam Backup & Replication server
B. Install the required Veeam Explorers on the engineer’s local machine
C. Install the Veeam Backup & Replication console on the engineer’s desktop
D. Use Veeam Enterprise Manager to connect to the Backup & Replication server

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

The engineer’s goal is to manage the Veeam Backup & Replication system fully without needing direct access to the backup server itself—meaning no local login or remote desktop connection. To achieve this, it’s crucial to select a management method that allows comprehensive control remotely and securely.

Option A suggests using SSH (Secure Shell) for remote server access. SSH typically provides command-line access and is common for managing Linux or Unix servers. However, Veeam Backup & Replication is primarily Windows-based and managed through a graphical user interface (GUI). SSH access would be limited to basic system commands and would not support full backup management functionality. Therefore, Option A is not appropriate.

Option B involves installing Veeam Explorers on the engineer’s machine. These tools allow granular restoration of specific data types (e.g., Exchange emails, SQL databases), but they do not provide full management capabilities like job creation, scheduling, or monitoring. Thus, they cannot replace full backup management access, making Option B unsuitable.

Option C entails installing the Veeam Backup & Replication console directly on the engineer’s desktop. This console provides a full GUI and allows remote management of the backup server. While this is a valid solution, it requires software installation on every client machine needing access, which may be less efficient in large environments.

Option D, using Veeam Enterprise Manager, is the best choice. This web-based management platform provides centralized, secure access to Veeam Backup & Replication functions via a browser, without requiring local server access or remote desktop. It allows the engineer to perform all management tasks—job control, monitoring, and restores—from any device with web access. This offers the greatest flexibility and efficiency.

Therefore, the most efficient way for the engineer to perform all functions remotely is to use Veeam Enterprise Manager, making Option D the correct answer.

Question 8:

When backing up Microsoft Exchange 2016 servers configured with Database Availability Groups (DAGs) using Veeam Agent for Microsoft Windows, which backup option must be selected to ensure proper protection?

A. Standalone server
B. Advanced Exchange Backup
C. Exchange Processing
D. Failover Cluster

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

Backing up Microsoft Exchange 2016 databases, especially in environments utilizing Database Availability Groups (DAGs), requires careful configuration to ensure consistency and recoverability. DAGs replicate Exchange databases across multiple servers for high availability, so the backup process must handle transaction logs and database states accurately.

The correct choice in Veeam Agent for Windows is Exchange Processing. This option enables application-aware processing specific to Microsoft Exchange. It ensures that Exchange databases and their transaction logs are backed up in a consistent and recoverable state, respecting DAG configurations. Exchange Processing handles database snapshots, truncates logs after successful backups, and maintains database integrity across replicated copies.

Let’s evaluate the other options:

Option A, Standalone server, implies backing up an Exchange server as an independent system without awareness of DAG replication. This approach neglects the DAG complexity and risks inconsistent backups or transaction log issues, making it unsuitable for DAG environments.

Option B, Advanced Exchange Backup, sounds relevant but is not an actual Veeam terminology or feature. The recognized term and functionality in Veeam for backing up Exchange with DAGs is Exchange Processing, which provides the necessary application-aware backup.

Option D, Failover Cluster, typically refers to traditional Windows Failover Clusters, which is a different high-availability technology. While DAGs use a form of clustering, Veeam distinguishes DAG backups with Exchange Processing. Failover Cluster backup settings do not specifically address Exchange DAG requirements.

In conclusion, Exchange Processing is the essential option for properly backing up Microsoft Exchange 2016 databases in DAG setups using Veeam Agent for Windows. It ensures application consistency and proper transaction log handling, making Option C the correct choice.

Question 9:

If a power outage is anticipated at Site A overnight, which method should be used to start the replicated virtual machines (VMs) on Site B to ensure minimal data loss?

A. Execute "Failover plan"
B. Execute "Planned failover"
C. Manually power on VMs through vCenter
D. Execute "Permanent failover" from vCenter

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

When a power outage is expected at a primary site (Site A), implementing an effective disaster recovery process is essential to protect data and maintain business continuity. In this situation, replicated VMs exist at a secondary site (Site B) precisely to handle such events. The key objective is to minimize data loss and ensure that Site B can assume workloads with consistency.

The best approach here is to use a Planned failover. A planned failover is a controlled, preemptive action taken before the primary site goes offline. It ensures all data is fully replicated and synchronized from Site A to Site B before switching the operation over. This method guarantees that no recent data updates are lost and the secondary site is prepared to run workloads smoothly, with minimal disruption. Additionally, a planned failover allows for a graceful shutdown of services on Site A, reducing the risk of corruption or incomplete replication.

Executing a Failover plan (Option A) is a broader term that may refer to failovers without the controlled coordination that a planned failover provides. It is often used in emergency, unplanned outages and might not ensure that all data is fully synchronized, increasing the risk of data loss.

Manually powering on VMs through vCenter (Option C) lacks automation and orchestration. This approach risks leaving dependencies or services improperly configured and can cause inconsistencies in data and networking, making it unreliable for disaster recovery.

Using a Permanent failover (Option D) commits to permanently switching operations to Site B and abandoning Site A. This option is appropriate only when Site A is permanently offline. Since the outage is temporary, permanent failover would be premature and could lead to unnecessary loss of the original site’s data.

Therefore, Planned failover (B) is the recommended method for starting replicated VMs at Site B in a controlled manner, minimizing data loss and ensuring operational continuity.

Question 10:

In Veeam Enterprise Manager, which specific granular restore permission is assignable to a user in the Restore Operator role?

A. SharePoint items
B. Active Directory items
C. OneDrive items
D. File items

Correct Answer:  D

Explanation:

Veeam Enterprise Manager, part of the Veeam Backup & Replication platform, allows centralized control over backup and restoration operations. A key feature is the assignment of roles and permissions to different users, including the Restore Operator role, which controls what data types a user can restore from backups.

The granular restoration permission that can be assigned to the Restore Operator role is for File items. This permission allows users to perform fine-grained recovery of individual files or folders from backed-up virtual machines without restoring entire VMs. This granular file-level restore capability is highly valuable for quick data recovery, minimizing downtime, and avoiding the overhead of full VM restores.

Other options listed are not typical permissions granted to the Restore Operator role because they involve more specialized restoration processes:

• SharePoint items (A) require permissions specific to SharePoint restoration, usually managed by SharePoint administrators or dedicated restore roles due to the complex nature of SharePoint data and its architecture.

• Active Directory items (B) involve restoring directory objects like users or groups. This requires specific permissions and processes distinct from file-level restores, typically handled by IT administrators with AD-specific restoration rights.

• OneDrive items (C) relate to cloud-based Office 365 data restoration. These restores are generally handled within Office 365 backup scopes and require different roles and permissions beyond the standard Restore Operator capabilities.

In conclusion, the Restore Operator role in Veeam Enterprise Manager is primarily designed to allow restoration of individual file items (D), making this the correct granular restore permission associated with that role.