ASIS PSP Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions

Question 1:

What term describes a risk management strategy that completely eliminates a security threat by removing the source of the risk?

A. avoidance
B. transfer
C. reduction
D. analysis

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

In risk management, different strategies exist to handle risks depending on the organization's goals and the nature of the threats involved. Among these, risk avoidance is the strategy that completely eliminates the possibility of the risk occurring by removing the activity or condition that causes the risk. This means that the security problem itself is entirely removed, rather than merely managed or mitigated.

Let’s clarify the differences between the options:

• Avoidance means steering clear of the risky activity altogether. For example, a company might decide not to engage in certain online transactions if the risk of data theft is too high, thereby removing that risk completely. This is the most direct way to optimize risk management by eliminating the threat at its root.

• Transfer shifts the risk to another party, such as through insurance or outsourcing. While this reallocates the responsibility, it doesn’t eliminate the risk itself; the threat still exists, just managed elsewhere.

• Reduction focuses on lowering the likelihood or impact of the risk through controls like firewalls or encryption. This lessens the threat but does not remove it fully.

• Analysis involves identifying and assessing risks, providing understanding rather than mitigation.

Since the question asks for the strategy that removes the security problem entirely by eliminating the risk, risk avoidance is the most appropriate answer. It is about preventing risk from arising at all, which is why option A is correct.

Question 2:

What is the minimum period during which a contractor who installs a physical security system must repair or replace any defects?

A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 12 months
D. 24 months

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

When a contractor installs a physical protection system—such as alarms, cameras, or access controls—it is critical that the system remains fully functional and defect-free for a reasonable time after installation. This ensures the security system reliably protects the premises and that any installation flaws are promptly corrected by the contractor.

Industry standards typically require a minimum warranty period of 12 months. This one-year timeframe is long enough to reveal any hidden defects or operational problems that might not be immediately obvious. It covers normal usage and environmental wear and tear, giving the client assurance that the system will operate correctly through its initial period of service.

Shorter warranty periods like 3 or 6 months (options A and B) are generally insufficient because many faults, such as hardware failures or improper installation issues, may surface only after extended use. Conversely, while a 24-month warranty (D) might offer extra peace of mind, it is not typically a mandatory minimum and may only be offered as an extended service option.

Therefore, the industry best practice and minimum guarantee period for contractors to fix defects in physical protection systems is 12 months. This protects the client’s investment and encourages the contractor to provide quality workmanship. Hence, option C is the correct answer.

Question 3:

Which activity accounts for the majority of the hands-on work during a security survey?

A. making judgments or drawing conclusions
B. analyzing underlying causes or hidden factors
C. checking the accuracy and validity of gathered information
D. collecting data and building evidence

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

A security survey is a systematic examination of an organization's security posture, focusing on identifying vulnerabilities, threats, and gaps. It includes several phases, but the largest share of the on-the-ground effort involves collecting data and gathering evidence. This foundational activity is essential to build a clear picture of the security environment.

The process of data collection includes inspecting physical security measures like locks and cameras, interviewing staff, reviewing policies, and monitoring electronic systems. These steps require significant time and effort because accurate and comprehensive information is needed before any meaningful analysis or conclusions can be made.

Options A and B—evaluating and analyzing—are critical but generally come after data collection. These tasks involve interpreting the information gathered to identify risks and recommend improvements. Without sufficient data, these steps would be premature or flawed.

Option C, verifying data accuracy, is important but a smaller subset of the overall effort. It involves cross-checking facts to ensure reliability but happens after most of the data is collected.

Therefore, gathering data and accumulating evidence represent the largest portion of fieldwork during a security survey. It lays the groundwork for effective evaluation and risk mitigation planning. Without this extensive data collection, the survey cannot yield valid results or actionable insights. Hence, option D is the correct choice.

Question 4:

Which cost evaluation method provides the most accurate and comprehensive assessment of the total expenses involved in acquiring and maintaining a security system bid?

A. Operating cost
B. Procurement cost
C. Installation cost
D. Life-cycle cost

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

When a project management team needs to understand the full financial impact of a security system bid, the most effective approach is to use the life-cycle cost method. This method goes beyond just the initial expenses and incorporates all costs incurred throughout the entire lifespan of the system, offering a holistic view of the investment.

Life-cycle cost accounts for the total ownership costs — including procurement, installation, maintenance, upgrades, operation, and eventual disposal or replacement. It considers the initial purchase price but also captures ongoing costs that can add up significantly over time, such as maintenance labor, software updates, energy consumption, and system upgrades. By calculating these cumulative costs, the team gains a clearer understanding of the long-term budgetary commitment.

In contrast, other options focus on narrower aspects:

• Operating cost includes only the ongoing expenses of running the system, like electricity or staffing. While important, this ignores upfront costs and capital expenses.

• Procurement cost focuses solely on the purchase price and related fees, missing operational and maintenance costs.

• Installation cost is limited to the expenses of setting up the system and does not include the costs to operate or maintain it.

Because security systems often require ongoing upkeep and upgrades, failing to consider these can lead to underestimating total expenses, resulting in budget overruns or system failures. Using life-cycle cost analysis helps decision-makers evaluate bids more effectively, ensuring that choices made are financially sound over the entire system lifespan, not just at purchase or installation.

Thus, life-cycle cost is the most comprehensive and insightful method to evaluate the true financial impact of a security system bid.

Question 5:

Which bidding procedure includes examining vendor qualifications, verifying references, and conducting interviews with their personnel?

A. Staffing plan analysis
B. Contract award
C. Vendor selection
D. Pre-bid conference

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

The process of carefully evaluating vendors by reviewing their qualifications, checking their references, and interviewing their staff is best described as vendor selection. This stage plays a vital role in procurement because it ensures that the chosen vendor is fully capable of delivering on the project’s requirements.

During vendor selection, organizations scrutinize potential suppliers to assess their expertise, past performance, and capacity to handle the contract. This involves verifying credentials, contacting previous clients or partners for references, and interviewing key personnel to gauge the vendor’s competency and reliability. The goal is to minimize risks and select a vendor who can provide quality goods or services within the agreed terms and timeline.

To clarify why the other options do not fit as well:

• Staffing plan analysis relates to assessing internal human resource needs for a project, not evaluating external vendors. It focuses on how the organization allocates its workforce rather than choosing outside suppliers.

• Contract award is the formal acceptance of the vendor after evaluations are complete. It follows vendor selection and does not involve review processes itself.

• Pre-bid conference is a meeting held before bids are submitted, where potential vendors receive project information and can ask questions. It is informational and does not include evaluation activities like interviewing or checking references.

In summary, vendor selection is the crucial step in the bidding process where an organization ensures the vendor is the best fit for their project by thoroughly assessing qualifications, references, and personnel. This detailed evaluation helps avoid selecting an unsuitable vendor and increases the chances of project success.

Question 6:

Which type of outdoor lighting device produces light by passing electricity through a gas sealed inside a glass tube, generating between 40 and 80 lumens per watt?

A. incandescent lamp
B. metal-halide lamp
C. halogen lamp
D. fluorescent lamp

Correct answer: B

Explanation:

The question describes an outdoor lamp that emits light by conducting electricity through a gas enclosed within a glass tube, producing an output of about 40 to 80 lumens per watt. This description most accurately fits the metal-halide lamp. Metal-halide lamps are a subset of gas discharge lamps where an electrical current passes through a vapor mixture containing metal halides—compounds of metals with halogen elements such as iodine or bromine. This process creates a bright, intense light with high luminous efficacy, typically in the 40-80 lumens per watt range, making them highly efficient for outdoor lighting applications like streetlights, stadium lighting, and parking lots.

To clarify why the other options are incorrect: incandescent lamps (A) generate light by heating a tungsten filament until it glows. This method is less efficient, producing roughly 10 to 17 lumens per watt, which is much lower than the range specified in the question. Halogen lamps (C) are an improved form of incandescent lamps with halogen gas inside to extend filament life and slightly increase efficiency, but they still operate on the heated filament principle and don't reach the lumen output described. Fluorescent lamps (D) also use gas discharge, but their mechanism involves mercury vapor emitting ultraviolet light, which then excites a phosphor coating to produce visible light. Fluorescent lamps tend to be more common indoors and have different efficiency characteristics, generally producing between 35 to 100 lumens per watt but not typically used for the described outdoor lighting context.

Hence, metal-halide lamps (B) are the best match, combining gas discharge technology with high luminous output suitable for outdoor use.

Question 7:

Which sensor type is designed to detect heat by sensing infrared radiation across varying background temperature levels?

A. Visible sensor
B. Passive infrared sensor
C. Electric field sensor
D. Microwave sensor

Correct answer: B

Explanation:

This question asks which sensor detects heat by recognizing infrared radiation emitted by objects, even when there are different background heat levels. The correct answer is the passive infrared sensor (PIR). PIR sensors work by detecting infrared energy, a form of electromagnetic radiation that all objects emit as a function of their temperature. These sensors can pick up changes in infrared radiation caused by a warm object moving within the sensor’s field, distinguishing the object’s heat signature against the background environment.

Visible sensors (A) detect light within the visible spectrum, but they cannot sense heat. They only capture reflected light, making them incapable of measuring temperature differences. Electric field sensors (C) monitor changes in electric fields and are often used for detecting proximity or presence but have no capability to detect heat or temperature variations. Microwave sensors (D) emit microwaves and detect objects based on reflected signals. Although they are effective for motion detection and distance measurement, they don’t detect heat or infrared radiation.

PIR sensors are widely used in security systems, automatic lighting, and motion detectors because of their ability to differentiate between heat levels from warm objects, like people or animals, and the cooler background environment. This makes them excellent for sensing temperature changes over varying backgrounds, which matches the criteria outlined in the question.

Question 8:

What is a primary advantage of contactless smart cards compared to proximity cards?

A. Smart card readers operate without needing external power.
B. Contactless smart cards cost less than other card technologies.
C. Contactless smart cards provide a longer read distance than proximity cards.
D. Encryption prevents any possibility of code compromise.

Correct answer: C

Explanation:

Contactless smart cards provide several benefits, but one notable advantage is that they generally support a longer reading range than traditional proximity cards, making option C correct. These cards communicate with readers through radio frequency identification (RFID) technology, allowing them to be read from a distance without physical contact or direct alignment with the reader. This extended read range improves convenience and efficiency in scenarios such as access control, public transit, and payment systems, where fast, contactless interaction is essential.

Option A is incorrect because smart card readers require external power to generate the radio frequency field necessary to energize and communicate with the card’s embedded chip. The card itself doesn’t contain a power source but relies on energy emitted by the reader. Thus, readers cannot operate without power.

Option B is also incorrect. While costs have decreased over time, contactless smart cards usually involve more complex manufacturing processes and embedded technology, making them more expensive than simpler technologies like magnetic stripe or basic proximity cards.

Option D is misleading because although encryption enhances security, it does not make code compromise impossible. Encryption methods can be vulnerable to sophisticated attacks if the security protocols are weak or keys are compromised. However, encryption still significantly increases the difficulty of unauthorized access.

In summary, the standout advantage of contactless smart cards is their longer read range compared to proximity cards, facilitating easier and quicker use in various applications.

Question 9:

What type of risk management strategy is demonstrated when a person or organization purchases insurance to handle the financial impact of a possible loss?

A. elimination
B. assumption
C. transference
D. avoidance

Answer: C

Explanation:

In risk management, various strategies exist to handle potential threats, including elimination, assumption, transference, and avoidance. Understanding these approaches helps clarify how insurance fits into risk handling.

Elimination means completely removing the risk by stopping the risky activity or exposure. For example, discontinuing a hazardous operation to remove all chance of related loss. Insurance does not remove the risk itself; it simply deals with what happens if the risk materializes. So, elimination does not apply to insurance.

Assumption involves accepting the risk and its possible consequences directly. This often happens when the cost of prevention or transfer is too high, or the risk’s probability is very low. Someone assuming risk chooses to absorb any losses without external support. Since buying insurance is about shifting the burden, it is different from assumption.

Transference is the correct concept here. It means shifting the financial responsibility for a potential loss to another party, typically through insurance policies or contracts. When you buy insurance, you transfer the financial consequences of certain risks—like damage, liability, or illness—to the insurer. This strategy helps protect you from bearing the full financial impact if a loss occurs.

Avoidance means taking action to completely prevent the risk from occurring by avoiding the risky activity altogether. Insurance doesn’t prevent the risk event; it only manages the consequences. Therefore, avoidance does not fit the purchase of insurance.

In summary, buying insurance is a classic example of risk transference, where the risk’s financial burden is shifted from the insured party to the insurer, making option C the correct choice.

Question 10:

What are the common broad categories used to classify the types of threats that security measures aim to defend against?

A. Human and systemic
B. Man-made and natural
C. Internal and external
D. Direct and indirect

Answer: B

Explanation:

Security professionals generally categorize threats to better understand and defend against them. The most widely accepted classification splits hazards into man-made and natural threats. This classification distinguishes threats based on their origin—whether they arise from human activities or natural phenomena.

Man-made threats include dangers caused by human actions, such as cyberattacks, terrorism, sabotage, or industrial accidents. These threats are deliberate or accidental actions that pose risks to security systems, infrastructure, or individuals. Security strategies addressing man-made threats often involve technological defenses, surveillance, law enforcement, and incident response plans.

On the other hand, natural threats stem from environmental or geological events like earthquakes, floods, hurricanes, or wildfires. These hazards occur without human intent but can cause significant damage. Protecting against natural threats requires disaster preparedness, emergency response, infrastructure resilience, and resource management.

Other classifications exist but are less universal or focus on different aspects. For instance, internal vs. external threats differentiate based on the source relative to an organization, such as insider threats versus outsiders. While important for some security concerns, this doesn’t encompass the broader origin of hazards.

Similarly, human and systemic threats can imply human errors versus system failures but lack the clear focus on external versus environmental causes that man-made versus natural provides.

The direct and indirect distinction relates to the nature of the threat’s impact but is not a primary classification for categorizing hazards.

In conclusion, the most comprehensive and widely used categories in security are man-made and natural threats, making option B the best answer.