Cisco 300-910 Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions

Question 1:

A DevOps engineer needs to confirm that the network is functioning properly before setting up a Continuous Integration/Continuous Deployment (CI/CD) pipeline. 

Which tool is best suited for verifying the network’s operational state?

A. Jenkins
B. Genie CLI
C. Travis CI
D. Python YAML data libraries

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Before implementing a CI/CD pipeline, ensuring the network’s stability and configuration correctness is crucial. This validation process typically involves tools that specialize in network automation and state verification. Among the given options, the tool best designed for this purpose is Genie CLI.

• Jenkins (Option A) is a popular automation server primarily focused on orchestrating CI/CD pipelines by automating software builds, tests, and deployments. While powerful for application development, Jenkins doesn’t inherently provide network validation capabilities, so it’s not the ideal tool for verifying network states.

• Genie CLI (Option B) is a Cisco tool purpose-built for network automation and validation. It allows engineers to gather device configurations, verify the current network state, and perform diagnostics before deploying automation workflows. Genie CLI integrates well with network devices and helps ensure that the network is healthy and correctly configured, making it the best choice for pre-CI/CD pipeline validation.

• Travis CI (Option C) is a cloud-based CI/CD service focused on software development workflows, not network validation. It automates testing and deployment but lacks features to inspect or validate network configurations.

• Python YAML data libraries (Option D) such as PyYAML assist in parsing and writing YAML files, which are often used in configuration management. While helpful in handling configuration data, these libraries don’t provide network state validation functions by themselves.

In summary, the Genie CLI tool stands out as the most appropriate choice because it is specifically designed to validate network devices and configurations, ensuring a reliable network environment before automating deployments through a CI/CD pipeline. This targeted functionality makes B the correct answer.

Question 2:

Which two actions help embed application security more deeply into the software development lifecycle? (Select two.)

A. Incorporate a dynamic code analysis step within the CI/CD pipeline execution
B. Incorporate a static code analysis step within the CI/CD pipeline execution
C. Use only internally developed software modules
D. Adjust the CI/CD pipeline to release updated software versions more frequently
E. Ensure the code repository server uses drive encryption with keys stored in a Trusted Platform Module or Hardware Security Module

Correct Answers: A and B

Explanation:

Integrating security into the software development lifecycle (SDLC) involves proactively identifying and addressing vulnerabilities throughout development, rather than waiting until after deployment. Two essential methods to achieve this integration are static and dynamic code analysis.

• Dynamic Code Analysis (Option A) involves testing the application during execution. It simulates real-time attacks and examines runtime behavior, uncovering vulnerabilities that only appear during operation, such as memory leaks or injection flaws. Adding dynamic analysis to the CI/CD pipeline enables teams to catch these issues early and continuously as code changes, making security an ongoing focus during development.

• Static Code Analysis (Option B) analyzes the source code without running it. This process identifies coding errors, insecure coding patterns, or potential security vulnerabilities like SQL injection or buffer overflow risks. Including static analysis in the pipeline helps developers fix security problems before the software is built and deployed, embedding security checks into the daily workflow.

• Using only internal software modules (Option C) is not necessarily a best practice for improving security within SDLC. External modules often benefit from broader scrutiny and rapid updates. Relying exclusively on internal code can limit security awareness and innovation.

• Releasing updated software more frequently (Option D) improves responsiveness and may help patch vulnerabilities faster, but frequent releases alone don’t directly embed security into the development process. This practice addresses release management more than secure development.

• Encrypting the code repository server (Option E) is important for protecting stored code, but it focuses on securing data at rest rather than integrating security into development workflows.

Ultimately, incorporating both dynamic and static code analysis tools into the CI/CD pipeline (Options A and B) ensures security is continuously tested and integrated from early stages, making these the most effective practices for embedding security within the SDLC.

Question 3:

You need to design a step in a CI/CD pipeline that builds infrastructure components using Terraform. This step should detect errors in any of the Terraform configuration files (.tf) within the working directory and verify the current state of the infrastructure defined by those files. 

Which Terraform command should the pipeline execute to achieve this?

A. terraform plan
B. terraform check
C. terraform fmt
D. terraform validate

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

In a Terraform-based CI/CD pipeline, a common requirement is to ensure that the Terraform configuration files are free of syntax errors and logically consistent before applying any changes to the infrastructure. Additionally, the pipeline should verify that the current state of the infrastructure matches what is expected or defined in the configuration.

The appropriate Terraform command for this purpose is terraform validate. This command analyzes all the .tf files in the working directory and checks their syntax and internal consistency. It ensures that the configurations are structurally valid and that there are no errors that would prevent Terraform from processing them correctly. Importantly, terraform validate does not apply any changes to the infrastructure; it merely verifies the correctness of the configuration.

Let's look at why the other options don’t fit the requirement:

• terraform plan generates an execution plan by comparing the current state of infrastructure with the desired configuration. While it does evaluate the state and potential changes, it is not specifically designed to validate the syntax or correctness of the configuration files. Its primary role is to preview what changes Terraform will make, not to catch syntax or configuration errors upfront.

• terraform check is not a valid Terraform command, so it cannot be used in the pipeline.

• terraform fmt automatically formats the Terraform code to ensure consistent styling and indentation but does not perform any validation on the configuration logic or check for errors.

Therefore, when the goal is to verify that the Terraform files are error-free and the configuration is valid before proceeding further in the pipeline, terraform validate is the correct and intended command to use.

Question 4:

In a CI/CD pipeline that involves source code developed using Test-Driven Development (TDD), which type of testing should be incorporated to verify the proper functioning of all individual modules?

A. Soak testing
B. Unit testing
C. Load testing
D. Volume testing

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Test-Driven Development (TDD) is a development methodology where developers write tests before writing the actual code. The focus in TDD is to create small, isolated tests that verify the functionality of individual components or modules. As a result, the type of testing that best aligns with TDD principles and is essential in a CI/CD pipeline is unit testing.

Unit testing targets the smallest units of code—functions, methods, or classes—and verifies that each behaves correctly under expected conditions. Because TDD relies on writing these tests first, they become a key mechanism for continuously validating that the code meets its specifications as development progresses.

The other testing types are less appropriate for validating TDD-developed modules:

• Soak testing involves running the system under a sustained load for an extended period to identify stability or memory leak issues. It focuses on performance and endurance rather than correctness of individual components.

• Load testing simulates high traffic or demand on the entire system to measure how well it performs under stress. This testing looks at system scalability and response times, not the correctness of single units of code.

• Volume testing assesses how the system handles large amounts of data. Like load testing, it evaluates performance under heavy data loads but does not focus on verifying code correctness.

Integrating unit testing in a CI/CD pipeline ensures that every change to the codebase is immediately verified against predefined behavior. Automated unit tests provide quick feedback and help catch regressions early, which aligns perfectly with the goals of TDD and continuous integration. Thus, unit testing is the correct and most effective type of testing for verifying the behavior of modules developed using TDD in a CI/CD environment.

Question 5:

You are investigating a failed Jenkins job accompanied by an error message. What is the best initial troubleshooting step to resolve the failure based on the error details?

A Check the output file generated by the job
B Update the pip package manager
C Install the necessary dependencies
D Run the job inside a container environment

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

When troubleshooting a failed Jenkins job, especially one involving Python or similar environments, a common cause is missing or outdated dependencies that the job requires to run correctly. The best first step is to ensure all the required dependencies are installed.

The error message often gives clues indicating missing libraries or packages. For example, if the error mentions a module not found or similar, it suggests that the Jenkins job cannot find the packages it needs. Installing dependencies typically involves running commands like pip install -r requirements.txt for Python projects, which ensures that all necessary libraries listed in the requirements file are present.

Let’s examine why the other options are less appropriate:

• Checking the output file (A): While inspecting any generated files might help in some cases, it does not directly address missing dependency issues. The job may fail before producing any meaningful output, making this step less effective initially.

• Updating pip (B): Keeping pip up to date is good practice, but it is usually not the immediate cause of job failures. If the error points to missing packages, it’s more effective to install the dependencies than to update pip itself.

• Running the job inside a container (D): Containerizing can solve environment inconsistencies but is a more advanced solution. If the failure is due to missing dependencies, installing them directly is simpler and usually sufficient before considering containers.

In summary, the most practical and direct way to fix failures related to missing packages or dependencies in Jenkins jobs is to install the required dependencies, making C the correct choice.

Question 6:

In a CI/CD environment where configuration changes are made to production network devices, the code repository and CI server run on separate machines. Some changes are pushed to the repository, but the pipeline does not initiate. 

What is the most likely reason the pipeline failed to start?

A The CI server was not set as a Git remote in the repository
B The webhook notification from the repository did not reach the CI server
C Configuration changes need to be sent to the pipeline first, which then updates the repository
D The pipeline requires manual initiation after repository updates

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

In a typical CI/CD pipeline setup, automation relies on the CI server detecting changes pushed to the source code repository. This detection is commonly done using webhooks—automated messages sent by the repository to the CI server signaling that a change has occurred, triggering the pipeline to start.

If the pipeline does not start despite changes being pushed to the repository, the primary suspect is a failure in the webhook mechanism. This means the repository’s notification never reached the CI server, potentially due to misconfigured webhooks, network connectivity issues, firewall blocks, or the webhook being disabled.

Let’s analyze why the other options are less likely:

• CI server not configured as a Git remote (A): While the CI server must have access to the repository, it does not necessarily need to be set as a Git remote for push or pull operations. Instead, the server often polls or listens to webhook notifications. Therefore, this is not typically the cause of the pipeline not triggering.

• Configuration changes sent to the pipeline first (C): This reverses the actual process flow. The pipeline reacts to changes pushed into the repository; it does not receive changes before the repository is updated.

• Manual pipeline start required (D): Modern CI/CD systems aim for automation. Manually starting pipelines after every change is inefficient and usually not the intended workflow unless explicitly configured otherwise.

Therefore, the most plausible explanation is that the webhook notification from the repository failed to reach the CI server, preventing the pipeline from being triggered automatically. Hence, B is the correct answer.

Question 7:

An updated version of an application is being launched by creating a separate instance running the new code. Initially, only a small subset of users is routed to this new instance until it proves stable.

What deployment approach does this scenario represent?

A. Recreate
B. Blue/Green
C. Rolling
D. Canary

Answer: D

Explanation:

The scenario describes a deployment method where a new application version is released gradually by directing only a small segment of users to the updated instance initially. This approach is known as the canary deployment strategy.

To understand why, let's analyze the other options:
Option A – Recreate: In the recreate strategy, the old version is entirely replaced by the new one all at once. The whole user base switches to the updated application simultaneously, without gradual or partial exposure. This does not align with the gradual rollout described.

Option B – Blue/Green: Blue/green deployment maintains two distinct environments. The blue environment runs the current stable version, while the green environment hosts the new version. When ready, traffic switches completely from blue to green. While it involves separate instances, all users switch over simultaneously after testing, not gradually.

Option C – Rolling: Rolling deployments update the application incrementally across servers or instances, replacing the old version piece by piece. However, rolling typically updates servers or infrastructure continuously rather than routing only a small portion of users to the new version first. The distinction is subtle, but rolling usually affects broader user groups stepwise, not a tiny initial portion.

Option D – Canary: Canary deployment is designed for the exact situation described. It involves releasing the new version to a small “canary” group of users first. This limited exposure allows testing the new release under real-world conditions and monitoring its stability. If the canary group experiences no issues, the deployment is expanded gradually to more users until full rollout.

In summary, canary deployment provides a controlled, incremental way to test new software versions with minimal risk. This matches perfectly with the given scenario, making Option D the correct answer.

Question 8:

Which of the following best defines a canary deployment?

A. An accidental deployment
B. A deployment that automatically rolls back after a set number of minutes
C. A deployment specifically related to data mining projects
D. A deployment targeting a limited number of servers or users

Answer: D

Explanation:

A canary deployment is a strategy used to release software updates to a small, carefully controlled subset of servers or users before a full-scale rollout. The term originates from the historical use of canaries in coal mines, which acted as early warning systems for toxic gases. Similarly, in software deployments, the small group exposed to the update serves as an early indicator of any issues.

Option D correctly captures this concept by emphasizing that the deployment is limited to a small number of users or servers initially. This limited exposure helps developers and operations teams identify and fix potential problems without impacting the entire user base or infrastructure. It reduces risk, as failures or bugs can be contained and mitigated early.

Let’s review why the other options are incorrect:
Option A – Accidental deployment: Canary deployments are deliberate, planned procedures designed to reduce risk. They are never accidental or unintended. The process involves careful monitoring and gradual exposure.

Option B – Automatic rollback after a set time: While some deployment tools may include automatic rollback features, this is not a defining characteristic of canary deployments. Canary’s core purpose is staged, limited rollout, not necessarily time-based rollback.

Option C – Deployment related to data mining: Canary deployments are a general software engineering practice and not specific to data mining or any specialized field. They are widely used across many domains for safely releasing updates.

In conclusion, Option D accurately describes a canary deployment as a controlled rollout to a limited set of users or servers, allowing early detection of issues and minimizing potential impact.

Question 9:

Which Cisco solution allows secure remote access by providing VPN capabilities with seamless integration of endpoint posture assessment and compliance enforcement?

A) Cisco AnyConnect Secure Mobility Client
B) Cisco ISE (Identity Services Engine)
C) Cisco ASA Firewall
D) Cisco Umbrella

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

The Cisco AnyConnect Secure Mobility Client is a comprehensive VPN solution that enables secure remote access for users, whether they are working from home, traveling, or at branch offices. It provides secure connectivity to corporate resources by establishing encrypted VPN tunnels over the internet.

A key feature of AnyConnect is its integration with endpoint posture assessment tools, which evaluate the security status of user devices before allowing access. This assessment includes checking for up-to-date antivirus, firewall status, system patches, and compliance with corporate security policies. If the device does not meet the required posture, access can be restricted or remediated automatically.

This capability is important for organizations to maintain security hygiene, especially in environments with remote or mobile workers. It helps reduce the risk of compromised or non-compliant devices connecting to the network and spreading malware or causing data breaches.

Other options provide important functions but are not direct VPN solutions:

• Cisco ISE (Identity Services Engine) is a policy management platform used for centralized identity and access control, including device posture enforcement, but it does not provide VPN capabilities itself.

• Cisco ASA Firewall can provide VPN services but lacks the seamless endpoint posture integration and advanced client features that AnyConnect offers.

• Cisco Umbrella is a cloud-delivered security platform focused on DNS-layer security, web filtering, and threat intelligence rather than VPN or endpoint posture assessment.

For the Cisco 300-910 exam, understanding the role and features of Cisco AnyConnect is critical. Candidates must know how it provides secure VPN access combined with posture enforcement, enabling secure and compliant connectivity for remote users.

Question 10:

In a Cisco Secure Mobility deployment, what role does Cisco ISE play in enhancing network access control?

A) Providing centralized authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) services with device profiling and posture assessment
B) Acting as a VPN gateway for remote users
C) Delivering endpoint antivirus and malware protection
D) Managing DNS requests to prevent phishing attacks

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Cisco Identity Services Engine (ISE) is a crucial component in Cisco Secure Mobility solutions, particularly in enhancing network access control. ISE provides a centralized platform for managing AAA (Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting) services. It authenticates users and devices trying to connect to the network, authorizes what resources they can access, and logs accounting information for compliance and auditing.

One of the most valuable features of Cisco ISE is its device profiling and posture assessment capabilities. Device profiling helps identify the type of device connecting to the network—whether it’s a laptop, smartphone, IoT device, or printer—and applies appropriate policies. Posture assessment checks the health status of devices, such as whether antivirus software is up to date or required patches are installed. Based on this information, ISE can enforce policies such as allowing, restricting, or quarantining the device.

ISE supports a variety of access methods including wired, wireless, and VPN connections, making it an integral part of a secure mobility strategy. It works closely with Cisco AnyConnect to enforce compliance before granting network access.

Options B, C, and D are important network security functions but not the primary role of ISE. Cisco ASA or other VPN gateways handle remote VPN access, endpoint antivirus is managed by security clients like AMP, and DNS filtering is managed by solutions like Cisco Umbrella.

In summary, Cisco ISE plays a pivotal role in secure mobility by providing centralized AAA services and enforcing granular access policies based on device type and posture, which is a core concept tested in the 300-910 exam.