Cisco 300-715 Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions

Question 1:

What roles, also known as personas, can a Cisco Identity Services Engine (ISE) node perform?

A. policy service, gatekeeping, and monitoring
B. administration, monitoring, and gatekeeping
C. administration, policy service, and monitoring
D. administration, policy service, gatekeeping

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Cisco Identity Services Engine (ISE) is a comprehensive solution for managing network security by enforcing policies related to access control, authentication, and monitoring. Within a Cisco ISE deployment, each node can assume specific "personas," or functional roles, to distribute workload and ensure efficient operation. The three main personas a Cisco ISE node can adopt are administration, policy service, and gatekeeping.

• Administration: Nodes with this persona are responsible for system-wide configuration and management. They handle administrative tasks such as setting policies, managing user access rights, system updates, and overall operation settings. This persona is critical because it provides the central control point for the entire ISE deployment.

• Policy Service: This persona is the enforcement engine for the network’s security policies. Nodes assigned the policy service persona process authentication and authorization requests, evaluate user credentials, and apply rules to determine access permissions. It handles AAA (Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting) functions and works closely with the gatekeeping nodes.

• Gatekeeping: Gatekeeping nodes are responsible for enforcing the actual network access control decisions made by the policy service nodes. They interact directly with network devices like switches and wireless controllers to permit or deny access based on the policies evaluated by the policy service nodes.

The other options are incorrect because they include monitoring, which is a supporting function rather than a distinct persona. Monitoring tasks can be performed on any of the personas but do not define a primary role. Additionally, gatekeeping is essential for access control and must be present alongside administration and policy service. Therefore, the correct combination of personas that a Cisco ISE node can assume is administration, policy service, and gatekeeping.

Question 2:

In a two-node Cisco ISE distributed setup, what occurs when the secondary node is deregistered?

A. The secondary node restarts.
B. The primary node restarts.
C. Both nodes restart.
D. The primary node switches to standalone mode.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

In a Cisco Identity Services Engine (ISE) distributed deployment with two nodes, there is a primary node and a secondary node. The primary node acts as the central point for configuration, policy management, and overall control. The secondary node provides redundancy, load balancing, and failover capabilities to ensure high availability.

When the secondary node is deregistered—meaning it is removed or disconnected from the deployment—the distributed environment changes significantly. The primary node detects the loss of its partner and switches its operational mode from distributed to standalone. This standalone mode means the primary node will continue to operate independently, handling all authentication and policy enforcement tasks on its own, but it will no longer benefit from the redundancy and load balancing previously offered by the secondary node.

This transition ensures the network remains operational even though the fault tolerance is reduced. The primary node does not restart during this process; it simply adapts to operate without backup support. The secondary node does not restart either since it is deregistered and effectively removed from the cluster. Likewise, there is no simultaneous restart of both nodes.

This design reflects Cisco ISE’s robustness in handling node failures or configuration changes without interrupting network services. The system prioritizes continuous availability by allowing the primary node to sustain its role alone, albeit with decreased fault tolerance, until the secondary node is re-registered or replaced.

Therefore, the correct answer is that the primary node transitions to standalone mode when the secondary node is deregistered.

Question 3:

When the primary administrative node is offline and the secondary admin node has not been elevated to take over, which two features remain functional? (Select two.)

A. New Active Directory user 802.1X authentication
B. Hotspot service
C. Posture assessment
D. Guest Acceptable Use Policy (AUP)
E. Bring Your Own Device (BYOD)

Answer: B, D

Explanation:

In a network environment where the primary administrative node fails and the secondary node is not promoted, the system typically enters a reduced functionality mode. This situation impacts features differently depending on how much they rely on centralized management and real-time communication with the primary node.

The hotspot service (B) is usually designed to operate independently of the primary admin node once policies are preconfigured and cached locally. This allows users to continue connecting via hotspots with basic authentication or captive portal mechanisms, ensuring minimal disruption to guest or temporary access.

Similarly, the Guest Acceptable Use Policy (AUP) (D) feature can still function because AUP enforcement is generally handled locally by the network devices or secondary node. Guests can still be presented with the AUP terms and access can be granted upon acceptance without requiring active communication with the primary admin node.

On the other hand, new Active Directory (AD) user 802.1X authentication (A) depends heavily on querying the primary node for user credentials and policies. Without the primary admin node or a promoted secondary node, this authentication flow is disrupted and cannot proceed.

Posture assessment (C), which verifies the compliance or health of connecting devices, requires up-to-date policies and evaluation engines usually managed centrally. Without the primary node or a promoted backup, posture checks cannot be reliably enforced.

Lastly, the BYOD feature (E) involves detailed device profiling, onboarding, and policy enforcement, all of which depend on centralized control from the primary node. In its absence, BYOD workflows typically become unavailable.

Therefore, hotspot (B) and guest AUP (D) are the two features that remain operational due to their ability to function with cached policies and local enforcement, even when the primary admin node is down and the secondary node has not taken over.

Question 4:

Which combination of client supplicant and authentication server supports the EAP-CHAINING feature?

A. Cisco Secure Services Client and Cisco Access Control Server
B. Cisco AnyConnect Network Access Manager and Cisco Identity Services Engine
C. Cisco AnyConnect Network Access Manager and Cisco Access Control Server
D. Windows Native Supplicant and Cisco Identity Services Engine

Answer: B

Explanation:

EAP-CHAINING is an advanced authentication technique in the 802.1X framework that allows multiple Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) methods to be executed in a chained sequence within a single authentication session. This approach enhances security by enabling multi-step authentication processes, such as combining device authentication with user credentials or posture validation.

For EAP-CHAINING to function correctly, both the supplicant (client) and the authentication server must support this capability.

Cisco AnyConnect Network Access Manager (NAM) is a sophisticated client-side supplicant developed by Cisco. It supports complex authentication scenarios, including EAP-CHAINING, allowing it to handle multi-method EAP sequences efficiently.

Cisco Identity Services Engine (ISE) is a powerful policy management and access control server that supports advanced authentication workflows like EAP-CHAINING. It can manage chained authentication steps based on organizational policies, allowing for granular access control and improved security postures.

The combination of Cisco AnyConnect NAM and Cisco ISE (B) ensures full support for EAP-CHAINING, making them the ideal pair for environments requiring layered authentication.

The other options lack full support for EAP-CHAINING:

• Cisco Secure Services Client and Cisco Access Control Server (A): This older client-server pair does not natively support EAP-CHAINING. Cisco ACS is legacy technology without the advanced capabilities of ISE.

• Cisco AnyConnect NAM and Cisco Access Control Server (C): While NAM supports EAP-CHAINING, Cisco ACS does not support this advanced feature, limiting the chain functionality.

• Windows Native Supplicant and Cisco ISE (D): Although Windows’ native supplicant supports basic EAP methods, it does not support EAP-CHAINING, as it lacks the complexity required to handle multiple EAP methods in sequence.

Hence, the only supported pair for EAP-CHAINING is Cisco AnyConnect NAM with Cisco Identity Services Engine (B).

Question 5:

What must be in place for the Cisco Identity Services Engine (ISE) Feed Service to successfully download updates?

A. TCP port 8080 must be open between Cisco ISE and the feed server.
B. Cisco ISE must have access to an internal server to obtain feed updates.
C. Cisco ISE must possess a base license.
D. Cisco ISE must have Internet connectivity to download feed updates.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

The Cisco Identity Services Engine (ISE) Feed Service is responsible for fetching and applying critical updates such as device profiling information, vulnerability data, and identity feeds. To perform these updates, ISE relies on communication with external servers, typically hosted by Cisco or authorized third parties in the cloud.

The key requirement for the Feed Service to work correctly is that Cisco ISE must have access to the Internet. This allows ISE to reach out to the remote update servers and download the latest security feeds automatically, ensuring the system has current threat intelligence and device profiles. Without this Internet access, the Feed Service cannot contact these external sources and will fail to update, potentially leaving the system vulnerable to outdated or incomplete data.

Option A is incorrect because the Feed Service does not specifically require TCP port 8080. Instead, it usually uses standard web ports like 80 (HTTP) or 443 (HTTPS) to communicate with the update servers. Thus, while network connectivity is necessary, port 8080 is not a mandated port for this purpose.

Option B is incorrect as relying on an internal server for feed updates is not a standard requirement. The Feed Service’s primary design is to pull data from external Internet-based sources. While some organizations might set up local mirrors, this is not the default or required setup.

Option C is incorrect because the presence of a base license does not impact the Feed Service’s ability to download updates. Licensing influences feature availability but does not affect the Feed Service’s need for network connectivity.

Therefore, the correct answer is D because Internet access is essential for Cisco ISE to retrieve and apply feed updates, which are vital for maintaining security posture.

Question 6:

Which approach is used to carry security group tags (SGTs) across a network infrastructure?

A. Embedding the security group tag within the 802.1Q VLAN header.
B. Using the Security Group Tag Exchange Protocol.
C. Activating 802.1AE (MACsec) on all network devices.
D. Embedding the security group tag within the IP header.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Security Group Tags (SGTs) are identifiers used to classify and apply network policies based on group membership, often critical in software-defined networking (SDN) and segmentation strategies. The primary method for transporting these tags throughout the network is by embedding them within the 802.1Q header, which is a standardized VLAN tagging mechanism at Layer 2 of the OSI model.

The 802.1Q header is traditionally used for VLAN identification but can carry additional metadata like SGTs. By embedding SGTs here, network switches and devices can read the tags directly from Ethernet frames and enforce security policies accordingly. This method integrates well into existing Ethernet infrastructure without requiring complex protocol changes or additional headers.

Option B is incorrect because no standardized "Security Group Tag Exchange Protocol" exists. While conceptually exchanging tags might occur in some environments, it is not a recognized or widely implemented protocol. Instead, tag transport relies on encapsulation within existing packet headers.

Option C refers to 802.1AE or MAC Security (MACsec), which provides encryption and integrity for Layer 2 frames. While MACsec enhances security by encrypting traffic between devices, it does not involve embedding or transporting security group tags. Thus, enabling MACsec does not facilitate SGT transport.

Option D is incorrect because embedding SGTs in the IP header (Layer 3) is not standard practice. Modifying IP headers to carry such tags is uncommon and not supported in mainstream network designs. Security tags are typically embedded at Layer 2 to maintain compatibility and efficiency in policy enforcement.

In conclusion, embedding the security group tag within the 802.1Q VLAN header (Option A) is the accepted and practical method to propagate SGTs across a network, enabling consistent security policy application and segmentation.

Question 7:

When setting up a virtual Cisco ISE deployment with each persona assigned to a different node, which persona requires the largest storage capacity?

A. Monitoring and Troubleshooting
B. Policy Services
C. Primary Administration
D. Platform Exchange Grid

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

In a Cisco Identity Services Engine (ISE) virtual deployment, different personas are distributed across nodes to optimize performance and scalability. Each persona plays a distinct role with varying resource needs. Among these, the Monitoring and Troubleshooting persona demands the largest amount of storage.

This persona’s primary responsibility is to collect, store, and analyze logs, events, and troubleshooting data generated by the network and the ISE system itself. Network environments can generate vast quantities of logs, including authentication attempts, security incidents, and system performance data. These logs accumulate rapidly and must be retained for both real-time monitoring and historical analysis.

The Monitoring and Troubleshooting node requires significant disk space because it stores extensive event logs and detailed troubleshooting reports that enable administrators to diagnose issues and maintain network health. This includes large databases of log entries and reports that, over time, grow substantially. Without sufficient storage, critical diagnostic data could be lost or overwritten, hindering effective network management.

In contrast, the Policy Services persona handles real-time authentication and authorization but does not store large amounts of log data locally. The Primary Administration persona focuses on configuration and system management rather than data storage. The Platform Exchange Grid (PXGrid) persona enables integration with other systems but has relatively modest storage requirements compared to Monitoring and Troubleshooting.

Thus, the Monitoring and Troubleshooting persona’s data-intensive role necessitates the largest storage allocation in a distributed Cisco ISE environment.

Question 8:

In a Cisco ISE standalone deployment, which two personas are typically configured on the same node? (Select two.)

A. Subscriber
B. Primary
C. Administration
D. Publisher
E. Policy Service

Correct Answers: C, E

Explanation:

A standalone Cisco Identity Services Engine (ISE) deployment consolidates multiple personas onto a single node due to the absence of distributed architecture. In this setup, the two key personas configured on the node are Administration and Policy Service.

The Administration persona manages the system’s configuration, user access to the administrative interface, and policy management. It controls how ISE is set up and maintained, allowing administrators to create and modify policies, set user roles, and configure the system’s general settings. In standalone mode, this persona runs on the same node as other critical functions because there is only one node available.

The Policy Service persona is responsible for the core AAA (Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting) functions. It processes network access requests, evaluates policies, and enforces security rules in real-time. This persona is crucial for the operation of the network access control system, as it validates users and devices trying to connect to the network.

In a standalone deployment, since there is only one node, these two personas coexist to provide full ISE functionality without distributing roles across multiple servers.

Other personas like Subscriber and Publisher apply only in distributed deployments. The Subscriber persona is used on secondary nodes to replicate data and process policy requests, while the Publisher persona exists on a primary node to manage data replication and configuration distribution. The Primary persona is also relevant only in multi-node deployments.

Hence, in standalone Cisco ISE installations, Administration and Policy Service personas are both configured on the single node to deliver comprehensive identity and access control services.

Question 9:

A network engineer needs to implement access control by using special tags without redesigning the current network infrastructure. 

Which technology provides a scalable way to enforce this requirement?

A. RBAC
B. dACL
C. SGT
D. VLAN

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

In this scenario, the network engineer’s goal is to apply access control using special tags in a way that scales across the network without requiring any major changes to the existing network design. The best solution for this need is SGT (Security Group Tag).

What is SGT?

SGT is a method that assigns security tags to network traffic or devices based on their security group membership. These tags act like labels attached to the traffic and enable network devices such as switches and firewalls to enforce access policies based on these tags rather than physical or logical network segmentation. This means that access control can be dynamically applied regardless of where the devices are located within the network topology.

Why is SGT scalable and efficient?
Because SGT operates independently of the physical or VLAN segmentation, it allows policies to be centrally managed and propagated across the entire network infrastructure. This eliminates the need to create multiple VLANs or redesign network segments every time a new access rule or group classification is needed. Thus, SGT simplifies policy enforcement and makes it much easier to maintain a scalable and secure environment.

Why not the other options?

• RBAC (Role-Based Access Control) focuses on permissions at the application or system level rather than the network level, so it does not use tagging in the network infrastructure to enforce access control.

• dACL (Dynamic Access Control List) can dynamically control access but usually requires more manual configuration and is less scalable when compared to SGT because it tends to operate on a per-device or per-user basis rather than across the network with tags.

• VLANs segment traffic physically or logically based on ports or devices, but creating and managing VLANs at scale can become complex and does not provide tag-based policy enforcement without redesigning the network.

In conclusion, SGT is designed specifically to provide a scalable, tag-based access control mechanism without changing the underlying network design, making it the ideal choice for this requirement.

Question 10:

In the context of Cisco’s TrustSec technology covered in the Cisco 300-715 exam, which method allows network devices to enforce security policies based on user or device group membership without redesigning the network infrastructure?

A. VLAN segmentation
B. Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)
C. Security Group Tags (SGT)
D. Access Control Lists (ACL)

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

The Cisco 300-715 exam, titled "Implementing Cisco Secure Access Solutions (SASE)," covers various advanced network security technologies including Cisco TrustSec. One fundamental concept in TrustSec is the use of Security Group Tags (SGT), which enable scalable, flexible, and efficient enforcement of security policies based on group membership rather than physical or logical network boundaries.

What are Security Group Tags?
SGTs are metadata tags attached to network traffic, identifying the security group to which the source device or user belongs. This allows network infrastructure components—such as switches, routers, and firewalls—to make access decisions based on these tags instead of relying solely on IP addresses or VLANs. The key advantage here is that SGTs abstract security policy enforcement from the physical network design, allowing policies to be consistent across the entire network.

Why is SGT preferred over VLANs or ACLs in this context?
VLANs segment traffic at Layer 2, requiring significant network redesign when creating or changing access policies. This approach is rigid and doesn’t scale well, especially in large environments with frequent policy changes. ACLs, while powerful, rely on static rules tied to IP addresses or ports, which can become complex and hard to maintain. In contrast, SGTs allow dynamic, group-based policy enforcement that is much easier to manage and adapt.

How does this relate to RBAC?
RBAC controls access based on user roles but is usually implemented at the application or system level rather than at the network traffic level. SGTs complement RBAC by enabling the network itself to enforce policies that align with role definitions, creating a comprehensive security posture.

In summary, understanding how SGTs function within Cisco TrustSec is critical for the 300-715 exam. It represents a modern, scalable approach to network access control, making it an essential topic for candidates to master.