Salesforce Certified Platform App Builder Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions

Question 1:

Universal Containers uses a custom object named Projects to manage internal projects by department. Access to these project records should be restricted so that only employees belonging to the respective department can view them. When an employee transfers to a different department, they should lose access to their previous department's projects. 

Given that the Projects object's organization-wide default sharing is set to Private, which two methods will best enforce this access control? (Choose two.)

A. Create a criteria-based sharing rule using the Project's department to share records with users based on their profiles.
B. Create a criteria-based sharing rule using the Project's department to share records with users based on permission sets.
C. Create a criteria-based sharing rule using the Project's department to share records with users based on their roles.
D. Create a criteria-based sharing rule using the Project's department to share records with users based on public groups.

Correct Answers: C, D

Explanation:

In Salesforce, controlling record-level access based on dynamic criteria like department requires setting up sharing rules that grant users access to relevant records. Since the organization-wide default (OWD) for the Projects object is Private, users only see records they own or those explicitly shared with them. The challenge here is to ensure that only employees within a specific department can view that department’s projects, and that access is revoked if an employee moves to another department.

Option C involves creating a criteria-based sharing rule that leverages Salesforce roles. Roles establish a hierarchy that can be mapped to departments, so users in a role aligned to a specific department automatically gain access to that department’s projects. When a user changes roles to reflect a new department, their access to the former department’s projects is removed because their new role does not grant access to those records. This automatic adjustment via role reassignment makes role-based sharing efficient for this use case.

Option D proposes using public groups. Public groups are flexible collections of users, roles, or territories. By creating a public group for each department, projects can be shared with the respective group. If an employee changes departments, updating their group membership immediately revokes access to the old department’s projects and grants access to the new department’s projects. This method provides straightforward administration of access without changing user roles.

On the other hand, options A and B are unsuitable because profiles and permission sets control object-level and field-level permissions but do not govern record sharing based on dynamic criteria such as department. Profiles cannot be used in sharing rules to grant access to records, and permission sets do not impact record visibility in sharing.

In summary, using roles or public groups for criteria-based sharing rules ensures precise and flexible control of project visibility aligned with departmental changes, meeting Universal Containers’ requirements effectively.

Question 2:

Universal Containers has many customers, with some sharing identical or very similar company names. 

To help users find the correct accounts more easily during searches, which two configurations should be implemented? (Choose two.)

A. Adjust the account search layout’s search filter fields.
B. Change the account search layout’s account tab columns that display.
C. Customize the account search layout’s search results columns displayed.
D. Modify the account search layout’s list view filter settings.

Correct Answers: A, C

Explanation:

When dealing with a customer base that includes many accounts with similar or even identical names, improving the search experience is crucial to prevent user confusion and errors. Salesforce provides several ways to tailor the search interface to help users quickly identify the correct records.

Option A suggests modifying the search filter fields on the account search layout. Adding relevant filters such as Account Type, Industry, Location, or other distinguishing fields allows users to narrow search results more effectively. For example, if two companies share the same name but operate in different industries or regions, these filters enable users to specify criteria that eliminate unrelated accounts from their search results. Enhanced filter options greatly improve search precision.

Option C recommends customizing the columns displayed in the search results. By adding useful identifying fields such as Account Number, Phone Number, or Email, users gain more context about each account at a glance. This is especially important when company names are similar, as additional details allow quick differentiation without the need to open each record individually. Well-chosen columns reduce search time and improve accuracy.

In contrast, option B (modifying tab columns) affects only the display in the account tab, not search results, so it does not directly improve search effectiveness. Option D (adjusting list view filters) impacts list views but does not influence how search results appear or are filtered, so it is less relevant for improving search clarity.

In conclusion, by enhancing search filter fields and search results columns, Universal Containers can deliver a more intuitive and effective account search experience, helping users quickly locate the right customer accounts despite similar names.

Question 3:

If an app builder sets up a validation rule on the Account’s Industry field to produce an error when its length is greater than six characters, and another app builder configures a workflow rule to automatically update Industry to "Technology" when Billing City equals "San Francisco".

What will happen when a salesperson saves an Account record with Billing City set to "San Francisco"?

A. The record will save, and the Industry field will be updated to "Technology."
B. The record will fail to save without displaying any error message.
C. The record will fail to save, and the validation rule’s error message will appear.
D. The record will save, but the Industry field will remain unchanged.

Answer: C

Explanation:

This scenario highlights the interaction between a validation rule and a workflow rule affecting the same field. The validation rule is designed to stop any Account record from being saved if the Industry field contains more than six characters. In this case, the field length limit is a strict constraint.

Simultaneously, the workflow rule triggers when the Billing City is set to "San Francisco." Once triggered, it updates the Industry field to the value "Technology." The key detail here is that "Technology" is 10 characters long, exceeding the six-character limit imposed by the validation rule.

When the salesperson attempts to save the Account, the workflow updates the Industry field to "Technology" automatically. However, because this new value violates the validation rule’s length condition, Salesforce (or the CRM system) blocks the save operation. The system will display the validation rule’s error message, indicating the Industry field’s value is too long.

It’s important to understand that validation rules are evaluated after workflow field updates during the save process. This means the validation catches any rule violations caused by the workflow’s changes before the record is finally saved.

No other error message appears because the validation rule takes precedence in this situation. Also, the record is not saved, so no partial update happens.

Therefore, the correct outcome is option C: The save fails, and the validation error message is displayed, ensuring data integrity rules are enforced even when workflows modify fields.

Question 4:

What occurs when a dashboard is deleted from a system? Select the most accurate statement about what happens to the dashboard’s components and related reports during deletion.

A. Deleting a dashboard removes the components inside it, but the custom reports linked to those components remain unaffected.
B. Deleting a dashboard bypasses the Recycle Bin, making the dashboard unrecoverable.
C. Deleting a dashboard deletes both the components and all custom reports tied to those components.
D. You must first remove or edit the components and detach underlying reports before the dashboard can be deleted.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Understanding the effect of deleting a dashboard is crucial for managing reports and data visualizations properly. The correct answer here is option A, as it best reflects how dashboards and their underlying components and reports typically behave in most business intelligence or CRM systems.

When a dashboard is deleted, all its visual components—such as charts, graphs, and widgets—are removed from the system because these components exist only within the context of the dashboard. They cannot exist independently without the dashboard container.

However, the custom reports or datasets that feed data into these components are not deleted. Reports generally exist as standalone objects that can be reused in multiple dashboards or accessed independently for analysis. This separation ensures that data is preserved and can be leveraged elsewhere, even if a specific dashboard is deleted.

Option B is incorrect because most modern systems move deleted dashboards to a Recycle Bin or Trash folder rather than permanently deleting them immediately. This approach allows recovery if a deletion was accidental.

Option C is inaccurate because it implies a cascade deletion of the reports along with the dashboard. Since reports are shared resources, they remain intact regardless of the dashboard’s deletion.

Option D is also false because users do not need to manually remove or edit components or reports before deleting the dashboard; the deletion process handles components automatically.

In conclusion, deleting a dashboard removes only the dashboard and its components but preserves the underlying reports, ensuring that critical data remains available for other uses and preventing unintended data loss.

Question 5:

In Salesforce, if a junction object has two Master-Detail relationships—one designated as the primary master and the other as the secondary master—what happens to the junction object record when both master records are deleted?

A. The junction object record is permanently deleted with no option to recover.
B. Deleting both master records is not permitted.
C. The delete operation is blocked if Roll-up Summary fields exist.
D. The junction object record is deleted but moved to the Recycle Bin.

Answer: D

Explanation:

In Salesforce, junction objects facilitate many-to-many relationships by linking two parent objects through Master-Detail relationships. One parent is identified as the primary master, and the other as the secondary master. These relationships tightly couple the junction object (child) to both master records (parents), meaning that changes to the master records directly affect the child record.

When both associated master records are deleted, Salesforce enforces referential integrity by deleting the junction object record as well. However, Salesforce doesn’t immediately erase these records permanently. Instead, the junction object record is sent to the Recycle Bin. This behavior offers users a safety net: the ability to restore accidentally deleted records within a retention period, supporting data recovery and reducing the risk of permanent data loss.

Option A is incorrect because, unlike permanent deletion, Salesforce uses the Recycle Bin to hold deleted records temporarily. Option B is false since Salesforce allows deletion of both masters, which cascades the delete to the junction object. Option C is also wrong because Roll-up Summary fields, while aggregating child data, do not prevent deletion of master records; they simply update summary values based on the related children.

In summary, when both masters are deleted, the junction object record is deleted but preserved in the Recycle Bin, enabling restoration if needed. This mechanism aligns with Salesforce’s design principles of data integrity and recoverability, making option D the correct choice.

Question 6:

Universal Containers needs to configure Salesforce so that the Field Sales team can only access accounts they own, the North American and European marketing teams can only view accounts in their respective regions, and the Inside Sales team can see all accounts. 

How should an app builder configure Salesforce to fulfill these access requirements?

A. Set the Organization-Wide Default (OWD) for accounts to Public, create profiles for each marketing team, and place Inside Sales at the top of the Role Hierarchy.
B. Set OWD to Public, create criteria-based sharing rules for marketing teams, and assign Inside Sales a permission set with "View All" on accounts.
C. Set OWD to Private, create permission sets for marketing teams, and assign Inside Sales a profile with "View All" on accounts.
D. Set OWD to Private, create criteria-based sharing rules for marketing teams, and assign Inside Sales a profile with "View All" on accounts.

Answer: D

Explanation:

To meet Universal Containers' requirements for precise account visibility, the app builder must carefully use Salesforce's security model, particularly Organization-Wide Defaults (OWD), sharing rules, profiles, and permission sets.

Setting the OWD for accounts to Private is the foundation. This restricts visibility so users only see records they own or have been explicitly shared with. For Field Sales, this means they only see their owned accounts by default.

Next, the marketing teams (North American and European) must be limited to accounts within their regions. This is effectively done using criteria-based sharing rules, which share accounts with marketing users based on field values like region or territory. This ensures regional segmentation of access without exposing irrelevant data.

For the Inside Sales team, who must see all accounts regardless of ownership or region, a profile with the "View All" permission on accounts is appropriate. This permission overrides OWD and sharing rules, granting broad visibility.

Option A and B are incorrect because setting OWD to Public exposes all accounts broadly, which conflicts with the requirement to restrict Field Sales and marketing teams. Option C uses permission sets for marketing, which is less appropriate for record access controls based on data criteria and can complicate maintenance.

Option D combines Private OWD (restrictive baseline), criteria-based sharing (targeted access for marketing teams), and a profile with "View All" for Inside Sales, providing a robust, manageable, and secure solution that aligns with business needs.

Thus, option D ensures proper segregation of data access and fulfills the visibility requirements efficiently.

Question 7:

The app builder has created a Visual Workflow for the Vice President of Service. Which two options allow users to access the Visual Workflow? (Select two.)

A. Custom Button
B. Quick Action
C. Visual Workflow Launcher
D. From a Process

Answer: B, C

Explanation:

Visual Workflows (or Flows) in Salesforce are designed to guide users through business processes interactively. After creating a flow, the app builder must determine how users will launch or interact with it. Two primary user-facing options for accessing a Visual Workflow are Quick Actions and Visual Workflow Launchers.

• Quick Action (B): This option creates a button or link on record pages or in the Salesforce app that users can click to launch the flow directly. Quick Actions integrate seamlessly into the user interface, enabling a straightforward and immediate way for users to start the workflow.

• Visual Workflow Launcher (C): This feature allows app builders to configure flows to launch in response to specific triggers or actions within the Salesforce environment. It is designed for user access, often appearing as buttons or menu items that launch the flow visually.

Why not the other options?

• Custom Button (A): While custom buttons can be used for many purposes, they typically execute simple actions such as URL redirects or JavaScript. They do not natively support launching Visual Workflows unless specifically coded to do so, making them less common and less direct for flow access.

• From a Process (D): Process Builder automates backend operations and can trigger flows automatically but does not offer a direct interface for users to manually launch flows. Thus, it is not a user-accessible method to start a Visual Workflow.

In summary, Quick Actions and Visual Workflow Launchers are the best and most user-friendly ways for users to access Visual Workflows directly.

Question 8:

Which two types of metadata changes can be made directly in a production Salesforce environment without deploying from a sandbox? (Choose two.)

A. Validation rules
B. Apex Triggers
C. Apex Classes
D. Visualforce pages

Answer: A, D

Explanation:

Salesforce metadata changes include configurations such as validation rules, code (Apex classes and triggers), and UI elements like Visualforce pages. While many changes require sandbox testing and deployment, some can be safely made directly in production.

• Validation Rules (A): These are formulas that enforce data integrity by restricting data input based on criteria. They are considered low-risk, declarative configurations. Because they don't contain complex logic that affects multiple systems, admins can create or modify validation rules directly in production with minimal risk.

• Visualforce Pages (D): Visualforce pages define custom user interfaces. They can be created or updated directly in production, especially if the changes are minor or cosmetic. This flexibility is often used for quick UI tweaks without the overhead of sandbox deployment.

Why not the others?

• Apex Triggers (B): Triggers are pieces of Apex code that execute automatically in response to data changes. Editing them directly in production is risky because faulty logic can disrupt data integrity or business processes. Best practice is to develop and test triggers in a sandbox, then deploy them after thorough validation.

• Apex Classes (C): These classes contain business logic and are often complex. Like triggers, they require testing in a sandbox environment to prevent errors that could cause system failures. Direct editing in production is discouraged.

In conclusion, validation rules and Visualforce pages are safe and common metadata changes made directly in production. In contrast, changes involving Apex code such as triggers and classes require deployment from sandbox environments after thorough testing to safeguard system stability.

Question 9:

A development team at Universal Containers uses a custom Training object to track customer training sessions. An app builder wants to establish a relationship between the Training object and Student records by creating a Lookup field on Training. Which two statements accurately describe what happens when adding a Student Lookup field on the Training object? (Choose two.)

A. The Student Lookup field on Training can be set as optional.
B. A Roll-up Summary field can be created on the Student object to summarize related Training data.
C. Users can only delete Student records from Training if they have access to those Student records.
D. Cross-object field updates between Training and Student records are not allowed.

Answer: A, C

Explanation:

When building relationships between objects in Salesforce, understanding how Lookup relationships function is critical. In this scenario, the Training object uses a Lookup relationship to associate Student records.

First, A is correct because Lookup fields on the Training record can be configured as optional. By default, Salesforce requires Lookup fields to be filled, but you can modify the field settings so users can leave it blank if no Student is linked to a specific Training record. This flexibility helps in cases where some training sessions might not have an assigned student.

Next, B is incorrect. Roll-up Summary fields can only be created on the parent side of a Master-Detail relationship and aggregate data from child records. Since Lookup relationships do not enforce this strict parent-child hierarchy, Salesforce does not support Roll-up Summary fields on objects related via Lookup. Therefore, you cannot create a Roll-up Summary on the Student object to summarize Training data in a Lookup relationship.

Statement C is correct. Salesforce’s security model dictates that users must have appropriate permissions to delete records. When a Training record has a Lookup to a Student, users can only delete the Student record from that relationship if they have delete access to the Student record itself. This reflects the loose coupling in Lookup relationships compared to Master-Detail where ownership cascades.

Finally, D is false. Salesforce allows cross-object field updates in Lookup relationships using tools like Process Builder or Flows. You can update fields on related records even when they are linked via Lookup, so this statement is not true.

In summary, when creating a Student Lookup on Training, it can be optional, deletion of Student records depends on user access, Roll-up Summaries are not supported, and cross-object updates are possible. This understanding ensures correct design and implementation of Lookup relationships.

Question 10:

An app builder wants to enhance user experience by displaying aggregated data from related records. To do this, they plan to use Roll-up Summary fields. 

Which three field types are valid for inclusion in Roll-up Summary calculations? (Choose three.)

A. Checkbox
B. Date
C. Percent
D. Time
E. Currency

Answer: A, C, E

Explanation:

Roll-up Summary fields in Salesforce are designed to provide aggregate calculations—such as sums, averages, counts, minimums, or maximums—based on child records related to a parent in a Master-Detail relationship. However, not all Salesforce field types can be summarized using Roll-up Summary fields, so it’s essential to know which field types are supported.

First, Checkbox fields are supported in Roll-up Summary fields. When you use the COUNT operation, Salesforce counts all child records where the Checkbox is checked (true). This is useful for tallying completed or approved items, helping users quickly understand how many records meet a binary true/false condition.

Next, Percent fields are valid for Roll-up Summary calculations. You can calculate average, minimum, or maximum percentages from the child records. This is helpful in scenarios such as tracking average discount rates or completion percentages aggregated from multiple child records.

Currency fields are commonly summarized using Roll-up Summary fields. They allow summing or averaging of monetary values, which is essential for financial reporting—like total sales amount or expenses rolled up to a parent account.

On the other hand, Date and Time fields are not supported in Roll-up Summary fields. While these fields can be used in filters for Roll-up Summary fields, you cannot perform mathematical aggregations like sum or average on Date or Time fields, which limits their usability in this context.

In conclusion, Roll-up Summary fields can effectively summarize Checkbox, Percent, and Currency fields. Knowing these limitations ensures accurate design of aggregated data views in Salesforce, improving the overall user experience by providing meaningful summarized insights on parent records.