ISC CCSP Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions

Question 1:

Which role in cloud computing is tasked with designing cloud components as well as conducting service testing and validation?

A. Cloud auditor
B. Inter-cloud provider
C. Cloud service broker
D. Cloud service developer

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

In cloud computing, different roles focus on distinct responsibilities crucial for managing and maintaining cloud environments. Among these, the role responsible for actually building cloud components and ensuring their functionality through testing and validation is the cloud service developer.

To clarify the other roles:

• Cloud auditor primarily focuses on auditing and compliance verification within the cloud environment. Their role is to evaluate whether the cloud infrastructure adheres to security policies and standards, but they are not involved in creating or testing cloud services.

• The inter-cloud provider facilitates communication and integration between different cloud platforms, ensuring interoperability. This role centers on network connectivity rather than developing or validating cloud services.

• A cloud service broker acts as a middleman who helps consumers choose, integrate, and manage cloud services. While they coordinate and manage service delivery, they do not build or test the underlying cloud components.

The cloud service developer handles the core task of creating the actual cloud infrastructure components, such as applications, platforms, or infrastructure services. This includes writing code, designing service architecture, and implementing cloud-based solutions. Beyond creation, this role also encompasses thorough testing and validation processes to verify that services operate as intended and meet performance standards before being deployed. Testing could include functional, performance, and security validations to ensure reliability.

Thus, the cloud service developer not only builds but also ensures the quality and robustness of cloud services through rigorous validation. This hands-on role is fundamental to the successful delivery and operation of cloud environments, making option D the correct answer.

Question 2:

Where is the most reliable information found when securing the BIOS of a physical device?

A. Security policies
B. Manual pages
C. Vendor documentation
D. Regulations

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

When securing the BIOS (Basic Input/Output System) of a physical asset, it is critical to rely on the most precise and authoritative guidance to configure security features properly. The best source for such detailed information is the vendor documentation provided by the hardware manufacturer.

Here is why the other options are less appropriate:

• Security policies provide high-level directives and organizational rules about security practices but do not offer detailed technical instructions for securing BIOS settings. They might mandate that BIOS security be enforced, but they won’t specify how to enable BIOS passwords or configure secure boot options.

• Manual pages are typically focused on operating system commands and utilities, mainly within UNIX or Linux environments. These documents do not cover hardware firmware settings like BIOS configuration and are therefore insufficient for BIOS security specifics.

• Regulations such as GDPR, HIPAA, or PCI-DSS set compliance requirements regarding data protection and physical asset security. While they emphasize the importance of securing devices, they do not detail the technical steps to secure BIOS or firmware.

Vendor documentation, by contrast, is specifically created by the hardware manufacturer (e.g., Dell, HP, Lenovo). It provides exact step-by-step guidance for configuring BIOS security features such as password protection, enabling Secure Boot, setting up TPM modules, and other vendor-specific firmware security controls. This documentation ensures that administrators can correctly apply security settings tailored to the specific hardware model, reducing risks from unauthorized access or firmware attacks.

In conclusion, vendor documentation offers the most accurate, model-specific, and detailed instructions for securing the BIOS, making C the correct choice.

Question 3:

Which of the following is not typically considered a contractual element related to Personally Identifiable Information (PII)?

A. Scope of processing
B. Value of data
C. Location of data
D. Use of subcontractors

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Personally Identifiable Information (PII) is any data that can identify an individual either directly or indirectly, and contracts involving PII focus heavily on data protection and privacy compliance. When organizations engage in contracts that involve handling PII, certain key elements must be clearly defined to ensure legal and regulatory compliance.

Let’s examine each option:

• Scope of processing describes what can be done with the PII — such as collecting, storing, modifying, or deleting the data. This is a critical contractual element because it defines the limits of how personal data may be used, ensuring that data controllers and processors follow legal guidelines, like GDPR, and do not misuse the information.

• Value of data, unlike the other options, is not a standard part of PII contracts. While the business value or financial worth of data might be considered in other contexts (like data monetization or asset valuation), contracts focused on PII protection do not typically include or emphasize this aspect. The focus is instead on how data is processed and protected rather than its monetary value.

• Location of data is important in contracts because where data is stored and processed can affect compliance with laws governing cross-border data transfers. Many privacy regulations impose restrictions on transferring PII outside certain jurisdictions, so this must be clearly outlined in the contract.

• Use of subcontractors is another essential part of PII contracts. If third parties are involved in processing or storing PII, the contract must specify their responsibilities and ensure they adhere to the same privacy and security standards.

In summary, the value of data is not commonly included as a contractual element related to PII. Contracts prioritize defining processing scope, data location, and subcontractor use to protect personal information legally and responsibly. Hence, option B is the correct answer.

Question 4:

What term best describes a cloud service model where customers are charged only for the computing resources they actually use and only for the time they use them?

A. Consumable service
B. Measured service
C. Billable service
D. Metered service

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Cloud computing is well known for its cost-efficiency and flexibility, allowing customers to pay specifically for the resources they consume rather than for fixed amounts of service. Understanding the terminology that describes this billing practice is important.

Breaking down each option:

• Consumable service refers generally to any service or resource that a customer can use, like storage or compute power. However, it does not inherently imply a billing model that charges based on actual usage or duration. It focuses more on the type of service rather than the payment method.

• Measured service is the most accurate term describing a billing approach where cloud providers track and bill customers based on their actual consumption of resources. This is a defining characteristic of cloud models such as Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) or Platform as a Service (PaaS), where customers only pay for what they use — whether that be CPU hours, data transferred, or storage space — and only for the time they consume it. This model is also often called pay-as-you-go.

• Billable service simply means a service that incurs charges; it does not specify how the charges are calculated or whether they are usage-based. Therefore, it’s a general term rather than one specifically tied to cloud consumption models.

• Metered service is closely related to measured service and sometimes used interchangeably. It implies that the provider tracks usage units (e.g., bandwidth or CPU cycles). However, “measured service” is the more precise term used in cloud computing standards to describe the billing concept where charges are based on actual use over time.

In conclusion, the billing model where customers pay only for resources consumed and only for the duration of usage is best described by measured service. This aligns with cloud computing’s promise of cost-effectiveness and scalability, making B the correct answer.

Question 5:

Which role is primarily responsible for overseeing the testing, monitoring, and security management of cloud services within an organization?

A. Cloud service integrator
B. Cloud service business manager
C. Cloud service user
D. Cloud service administrator

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

The role that entails the responsibility for testing, monitoring, and securing cloud services in an organization is the Cloud Service Administrator. This position focuses on the technical management and operational oversight of cloud resources. The administrator ensures that cloud infrastructure is running efficiently by monitoring system performance, managing configurations, and promptly addressing any operational issues or vulnerabilities. Security is a key part of their duties, involving the implementation of security policies, continuous surveillance for threats, and ensuring compliance with both organizational standards and relevant industry regulations.

Let's review why the other roles are not suitable for this function:

• Cloud Service Integrator (A) is mainly tasked with integrating cloud platforms and services with an organization’s existing IT infrastructure. While crucial for ensuring smooth interoperability, integrators generally do not handle ongoing monitoring or security management of cloud services post-integration. Their role is more about connecting disparate systems than securing or maintaining them.

• Cloud Service Business Manager (B) handles the business-related aspects of cloud services, such as managing vendor relationships, contracts, pricing models, and service-level agreements (SLAs). This role does not typically involve technical management or security responsibilities.

• Cloud Service User (C) refers to the end-users or employees who utilize cloud services but do not engage in the technical or security administration of those services.

Thus, the Cloud Service Administrator is the best fit for testing, monitoring, and securing cloud services, combining technical skills with operational responsibility, making D the correct answer.

Question 6:

Which data format is exclusively supported by the SOAP API for exchanging information?

A. HTML
B. SAML
C. XSML
D. XML

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

The SOAP (Simple Object Access Protocol) API is a messaging protocol widely used for exchanging structured information between web services. One of SOAP’s defining characteristics is its strict use of XML (Extensible Markup Language) as the sole data format for communication. This is because XML provides a flexible, standardized way to encode the data exchanged, enabling interoperability across diverse platforms and systems.

Let’s examine why the other options are incorrect:

• HTML (A) is designed for displaying content in web browsers, structuring web pages and user interfaces. It is not intended for the structured data exchange required by SOAP web services and lacks the formal schema needed to represent complex message structures.

• SAML (B) stands for Security Assertion Markup Language, which is indeed XML-based and used primarily for exchanging authentication and authorization information, especially in single sign-on (SSO) scenarios. However, SAML is a separate standard from SOAP and is not the default or exclusive data format SOAP uses. SOAP messages themselves do not require SAML.

• XSML (C) is not a recognized standard or data format in web services. It appears to be a typographical or conceptual error, with no role in SOAP communication.

The SOAP protocol requires the message envelope, header, and body to be encoded in XML. This use of XML ensures that SOAP messages are both machine-readable and highly extensible, allowing developers to define custom tags and complex data structures. SOAP’s reliance on XML guarantees consistent formatting and parsing rules, making it universally compatible with various programming environments and platforms.

Because of this, the only data format permitted with the SOAP API is XML, which makes D the correct choice.

Question 7:

Which data formats are most commonly utilized for data exchange when working with REST APIs?

A. JSON and SAML
B. XML and SAML
C. XML and JSON
D. SAML and HTML

Answer: C

Explanation:

When interacting with REST APIs, the data transmitted between clients and servers needs to be in a format that is easy to interpret, lightweight, and widely supported across different systems and programming languages. Two of the most prevalent data formats meeting these criteria are JSON (JavaScript Object Notation) and XML (Extensible Markup Language).

JSON is especially favored in modern web development because it is compact, easy to read, and seamlessly integrates with JavaScript, which makes parsing straightforward in web applications. Its simplicity reduces bandwidth usage, improving performance, which is why it’s become the dominant choice for REST APIs.

XML has been widely used historically, especially in SOAP-based web services, and remains in use in many legacy systems and some RESTful services. It provides a structured and extensible way to represent data, though it tends to be more verbose than JSON and requires more processing overhead.

Looking at the other options: SAML (Security Assertion Markup Language) is not designed for data exchange in REST APIs; it is primarily used for authentication and authorization in scenarios like Single Sign-On (SSO). Therefore, any options pairing SAML with JSON or XML are incorrect.

Similarly, HTML is a markup language used to structure web pages, not to transmit data payloads between APIs. Thus, options involving HTML are not suitable for representing REST API data.

In summary, JSON and XML are the two most commonly used formats for data interchange in REST APIs, with JSON being the preferred format for modern applications due to its efficiency and ease of use. Therefore, the correct answer is C.

Question 8:

Which type of security threat arises when an application fails to enforce authorization checks on certain functions after the initial access control verification?

A. Injection
B. Missing function-level access control
C. Cross-site request forgery
D. Cross-site scripting

Answer: B

Explanation:

The threat known as missing function-level access control occurs when an application verifies user permissions only once—usually at login or at the start of a session—but neglects to enforce authorization checks on individual functions or endpoints throughout the application afterward. This lapse allows users to access restricted functions or data without proper validation of their rights, potentially leading to unauthorized actions.

For instance, after a user logs in and gains access to some parts of the application, if the system does not revalidate their permissions when they attempt to perform specific operations or access sensitive information, they could exploit this gap to perform actions beyond their allowed privileges. This represents a serious security flaw as it bypasses the principle of least privilege.

Evaluating other options helps clarify why they are incorrect here:

• Injection attacks (Option A) involve inserting malicious code into input fields (like SQL injection) to manipulate backend systems. This relates to input validation vulnerabilities, not authorization checks.

• Cross-site request forgery (CSRF) (Option C) tricks an authenticated user’s browser into making unintended requests. CSRF exploits session trust rather than missing internal authorization controls.

• Cross-site scripting (XSS) (Option D) involves injecting malicious scripts into web pages, executed in a user’s browser to steal data or hijack sessions. This is about client-side script injection, unrelated to backend function-level access control.

In conclusion, missing function-level access control is a critical security risk arising from failing to enforce authorization consistently throughout an application, making B the correct answer.

Question 9:

Which cloud role is primarily responsible for managing billing, procurement, and requesting audit reports within an organization’s cloud services?

A. Cloud service user
B. Cloud service business manager
C. Cloud service administrator
D. Cloud service integrator

Correct answer: B

Explanation:

The role that typically handles the oversight of billing, purchasing, and audit reporting in a cloud environment is the Cloud service business manager. This position focuses on the financial and strategic management of cloud services to ensure they align with the organization's goals and budgets.

To understand why this is the case, it helps to consider the responsibilities of each role:

• Cloud service user (A) refers to individuals or teams that consume cloud resources and services for their daily tasks. Their focus is on using cloud applications and tools, not on managing finances or audits. They usually do not have authority over procurement or budget control.

• Cloud service business manager (B) holds a key position that combines financial oversight with strategic planning. This role manages budgets related to cloud consumption, controls purchasing decisions, monitors vendor contracts, and requests audit reports to assess service usage and compliance. The business manager ensures that cloud expenditures stay within forecasted limits and supports decision-making based on financial and operational reports.

• Cloud service administrator (C) is focused on technical tasks such as configuring cloud resources, managing user access, applying security policies, and troubleshooting. Although they might track resource usage for capacity planning, they do not usually handle billing or audit reports.

• Cloud service integrator (D) works on the technical integration of cloud services with existing on-premises systems or other cloud platforms. This role is largely technical and implementation-driven, without responsibilities for financial management or auditing.

In summary, the Cloud service business manager is the most suitable role for overseeing billing, purchasing, and audit reports because this role combines financial stewardship with strategic governance of cloud service consumption, making it essential for business alignment and cost control.

Question 10:

What is the primary risk associated with hosting a key management system (KMS) outside the cloud environment?

A. Confidentiality
B. Portability
C. Availability
D. Integrity

Correct answer: C

Explanation:

The foremost concern when a key management system (KMS) is hosted outside the cloud environment is Availability. Availability refers to the system’s ability to be reliably accessible whenever encryption or decryption operations need to be performed. If the KMS becomes unavailable, applications dependent on cryptographic keys cannot function properly, potentially causing service interruptions or data access issues.

Hosting a KMS externally introduces several availability risks:

• Network Dependency: The communication between the cloud environment and an external KMS depends on the network’s stability. Any network latency, failure, or downtime can delay or block access to keys, impacting the entire cloud application’s performance.

• Redundancy and Failover Limitations: Cloud providers often offer built-in mechanisms like automatic failover, replication, and disaster recovery that ensure high availability of services. An externally hosted KMS may lack these robust redundancy features, increasing the risk of outages or data loss during incidents.

• Geographical Distance: If the external KMS is located far from the cloud data center, physical distance can cause higher latency and slower response times. This lag can reduce operational efficiency and disrupt critical security workflows.

Considering other options:

• Confidentiality (A) is important but can be ensured through strong encryption and access controls regardless of where the KMS is hosted. Both cloud-based and external KMS implementations can maintain confidentiality effectively.

• Portability (B) refers to the ability to move the KMS between environments. While desirable, it does not pose an immediate risk to service continuity compared to availability.

• Integrity (D) involves ensuring data is not altered or tampered with. This aspect is maintained via cryptographic protocols and is independent of the KMS’s physical location.

In conclusion, Availability is the critical factor when the KMS is hosted outside the cloud because any disruption in key access can have severe implications on data security, application reliability, and business continuity.