Salesforce Certified Development Lifecycle and Deployment Architect Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions

Question 1:

After acquiring Eastern Trail Outfitters (ETO), Northern Trail Outfitters (NTO) wants to quickly adopt ETO’s Sales Optimization app within its own Salesforce environment. 

What is the most efficient way to move the app to NTO’s org?

A. Grant NTO’s users access by creating them in ETO’s Salesforce org
B. Rebuild the Sales Optimization app from scratch in NTO’s org
C. Package the app as a managed package and install it in NTO’s org
D. Package the app as an unmanaged package and install it in NTO’s org

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

In the context of an acquisition where one Salesforce organization wants to adopt an application from another organization quickly and with flexibility, using an unmanaged package is the best solution. This method is particularly suited to internal use cases where the acquiring organization needs full control over customization and rapid deployment.

An unmanaged package allows developers to group and transfer metadata components (such as custom objects, Apex classes, Visualforce pages, Lightning components, etc.) from one Salesforce org to another. Once the package is installed in the new org, the recipient (in this case, NTO) gains full control over its components. This is crucial because NTO’s team may want to adapt or enhance the app based on their internal processes or future needs.

Why this approach is optimal:

• Speed: Unmanaged packages can be created and deployed quickly since they don’t require namespace registration or Salesforce AppExchange security reviews.

• Flexibility: Post-deployment, NTO can modify, extend, or delete parts of the app without restrictions.

• Simplicity: It involves minimal overhead compared to managed packages.

Let’s review the other options:

• A. Creating users in ETO’s org is not a long-term or scalable solution. It introduces concerns related to access control, data governance, and compliance, especially in a post-acquisition setting.

• B. Rebuilding the app from scratch might ensure full customization, but it is time-consuming, costly, and prone to inconsistencies or missed functionality.

• C. Creating a managed package involves a more rigorous process, including versioning and limited post-install customization. Managed packages are better suited for commercial distribution, not internal transfers between related businesses.

Given the need for a fast, flexible, and secure method to replicate the app from ETO to NTO, using an unmanaged package offers the best balance of control and speed. Therefore, option D is the most appropriate choice.

Question 2:

What are two recommended techniques for generating test data in Salesforce Apex test classes? (Choose two.)

A. Use a mock HTTP endpoint to simulate external API responses
B. Pull test data directly from middleware within the test class
C. Employ Heroku Connect to retrieve test data for Apex tests
D. Load a CSV file as a static resource and reference it in the test class

Correct Answers: A and D

Explanation:

Creating robust and reliable test data is essential for building effective Salesforce Apex test classes. Since Apex test methods must be self-contained and cannot rely on actual org data or live endpoints, Salesforce enforces strict guidelines to ensure test isolation and repeatability.

A. Using a mock HTTP endpoint is one of the recommended approaches when testing code that makes HTTP callouts. In test contexts, real callouts are not allowed. To address this, Salesforce provides the HttpCalloutMock interface. Developers can create custom mock classes that simulate a variety of responses, such as success, failure, or timeouts, depending on the test scenario. This method ensures the code can be validated without external dependencies.

D. Using a static resource such as a CSV file is another recommended method. Developers can upload a CSV file to Salesforce as a static resource and parse it during test execution. This enables the simulation of large or structured data sets without needing actual org records. It's especially useful for testing batch jobs, data transformations, or bulk inserts. Static resources are portable across environments and fully under version control, ensuring consistency.

Why the other choices are not correct:

• B. Referencing middleware directly contradicts best practices for unit testing. Apex test methods must not depend on external systems. Doing so introduces instability and violates the principle of test independence.

• C. Using Heroku Connect is also inappropriate for test data creation. While Heroku Connect enables real-time data synchronization between Salesforce and Heroku Postgres, it operates in live environments and cannot be used within the test execution context. It does not offer the required isolation for unit tests.

In conclusion, mocking callouts and using static CSV resources are both Salesforce-approved, efficient, and reliable methods for generating test data in Apex tests. These techniques ensure tests remain fast, repeatable, and free of external dependencies. Thus, the correct answers are A and D.

Question 3:

Universal Containers has acquired multiple companies that each use their own Salesforce orgs. These entities are now structured as separate business units under UC. The CEO has tasked an architect with reviewing the org strategy, emphasizing the need for standardized business processes across all units. However, there is no requirement for these business units to integrate their processes since they operate with different customers and expertise. 

Which org strategy should be chosen based on these conditions?

A. Use a single org because managing multiple orgs increases costs.
B. Use multiple orgs because different business units will struggle to work in the same environment.
C. Use multiple orgs and implement a shared managed package across them.
D. Use a single org to simplify and enforce standard business processes.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

In this case, the primary concern for Universal Containers is achieving business process standardization across its newly formed business units. There is no demand for cross-unit integration, which simplifies the architectural requirements. The recommended approach is a single-org strategy because it offers the best structure for enforcing uniform processes, managing governance centrally, and simplifying system administration.

A single-org setup supports the implementation of consistent business workflows across the organization. This is beneficial for:

• Centralized governance and control, which allows for streamlined deployment of changes across all units.

• Unified configurations, enabling admins and developers to apply updates, validation rules, and process automation in one place.

• Lower maintenance costs, since only one environment requires updates, integrations, and support.

• Logical separation of data and operations using features like record types, business units, profiles, roles, and sharing rules to ensure that each unit’s data remains isolated and secure.

Let’s look at why the other options fall short:

A. While cost is a valid consideration, this option oversimplifies the decision by focusing only on expenses. Cost efficiency is not the main objective in this scenario—standardization is.

B. User resistance or adjustment to a shared org is a change management issue, not a technical architectural concern. It doesn’t outweigh the benefit of centralized control when standardization is a must.

C. Although deploying a shared managed package across multiple orgs can help synchronize some elements, it introduces complexity in version control and governance. It doesn’t offer the same level of enforcement as a single org.

Therefore, the single-org approach (Option D) is most suitable when the goal is to enforce consistent business processes, even across independently operating business units. It allows Universal Containers to deliver standardized processes efficiently and securely while maintaining necessary data separation.

Question 4:

Universal Containers is transitioning from an in-house CRM system to Salesforce Sales Cloud. As part of this move, they plan to migrate 5 million Accounts, 10 million Contacts, and 5 million Leads. 

Which three aspects must be thoroughly tested during the data migration process to ensure success? (Choose three.)

A. Ownership of Accounts and Leads
B. Correct Account association for Contacts
C. Page layout configurations
D. Lead assignment processes
E. Data transformation compared to the source system

Correct Answers: A, B, E

Explanation:

Large-scale data migration, such as the one Universal Containers is undertaking, is a high-risk and critical activity in any Salesforce implementation. It involves validating not just the successful movement of records, but also the accuracy, relationships, and transformations involved in moving from a legacy system into the Salesforce data model.

Here’s why each correct answer is essential:

A. Ownership of Accounts and Leads
In Salesforce, ownership defines visibility and accessibility. Record ownership impacts role-based sharing, reporting, and workflow triggers. If ownership isn’t correctly migrated, users may not see the records they should, or automation and security settings may fail to behave as expected.

B. Contact-to-Account Relationships
Maintaining the parent-child relationship between Contacts and Accounts is essential. These links are often used in reporting, account hierarchies, and integrations. If this relationship breaks during migration, it can lead to orphaned records or inaccurate reporting structures.

E. Data Transformation Validation
Legacy data often needs transformation—formatting changes, value mapping, deduplication, or cleansing—before it can be inserted into Salesforce. Testing this transformation ensures that:

• Dates and numeric fields retain correct formatting.

• Picklist and lookup fields are correctly mapped.

• Codes or custom values from the legacy system are translated accurately to Salesforce values.

Failure to properly validate transformed data could result in data loss, invalid records, or functional errors post-migration.

Why the other options are not correct:

C. Page Layout Configurations
Page layouts are a UI concern, not a data migration issue. While important to the end-user experience, they do not affect data integrity or migration success and are typically tested during the configuration or user acceptance testing (UAT) phase.

D. Lead Assignment Processes
Lead assignment rules are part of functional configuration, not data migration. During migration, Leads are usually assigned statically to specific users based on mappings, not dynamically routed via assignment rules.

In conclusion, ensuring accurate ownership, maintaining correct record relationships, and validating data transformations are essential for a successful Salesforce data migration. Therefore, the most relevant testing areas are A, B, and E.

Question 5:

Universal Containers (UC), a technology company, has started leveraging Salesforce DX and is transitioning parts of its metadata and codebase into Unlocked Packages. 

What two best practices should a Salesforce architect recommend to support this new package-based development approach? (Select two options.)

A. Consolidate all code and metadata into one large Unlocked Package.
B. Skip version control since Unlocked Packages manage metadata.
C. Always validate Unlocked Packages in test environments before production.
D. Use the Metadata Coverage Report to determine what metadata is supported in packaging.

Correct Answers: C, D

Explanation:

As Universal Containers adopts a modern package development strategy using Unlocked Packages within Salesforce DX (SFDX), adhering to proven best practices is essential for achieving a scalable and maintainable architecture. Unlocked Packages are designed to promote modularization, source-driven development, and continuous integration. The two most critical practices in this context are testing in pre-production environments and understanding metadata support.

C. Always validate Unlocked Packages in test environments before production
Testing packages in sandboxes or scratch orgs before deploying to production is crucial. This ensures that the package installs correctly and behaves as intended in a controlled setting. By doing so, UC can:

• Catch deployment errors or conflicts early

• Ensure critical business processes are not disrupted

• Run automated regression tests
  This aligns with DevOps principles and enhances deployment reliability, especially in CI/CD pipelines.

D. Use the Metadata Coverage Report to determine what metadata is supported
Salesforce's Metadata Coverage Report provides detailed information about which metadata types are compatible with Unlocked Packages. Not all components are packageable. By consulting this report, UC can:

• Avoid including unsupported metadata that causes packaging failures

• Make better decisions about modularization strategies

• Determine which components must stay outside packages or be handled differently

Why the other options are incorrect:

A. Consolidate everything into one large package
This goes against the core philosophy of modularization. Monolithic packages are difficult to manage, version, and update. Best practice is to create smaller, logically grouped packages that are easier to maintain and deploy independently.

B. Skip version control
This is highly discouraged. Version control (such as Git) is vital for collaboration, tracking changes, rollbacks, and integration with automated CI/CD workflows. Packages manage deployments, but version control manages development history and team coordination.

By following best practices such as testing packages prior to production and verifying metadata support, UC can ensure a robust package development workflow that is resilient, modular, and future-proof.

Question 6:

Universal Containers (UC) has already enabled scratch orgs but now wants to move from the org development model to a full package development model using Salesforce DX. 

What must an administrator do to enable package development features in the setup?

A. Enable Unlocked Packages only and leave Second-Generation Managed Packages disabled.
B. Enable Dev Hub and Source Tracking for Scratch Orgs in Setup.
C. Enable both Unlocked Packages and Second-Generation Managed Packages in Setup.
D. Enable Dev Hub and Second-Generation Managed Packages in Setup.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

As Universal Containers transitions from the traditional org-based development model to the package development model in Salesforce DX, administrative setup plays a foundational role. Even though UC already uses scratch orgs (meaning Dev Hub is enabled), further configuration is needed to activate packaging capabilities.

C. Enable both Unlocked Packages and Second-Generation Managed Packages in Setup
This is the required step. Salesforce provides two types of second-generation packages:

• Unlocked Packages, typically for internal development, offering flexibility and modularization.

• Second-Generation Managed Packages (2GP), intended for ISVs distributing via AppExchange.

By enabling both options, UC gains full access to:

• Create, version, and install packages

• Develop modular applications

• Manage dependencies and lifecycles through CLI and metadata APIs

Once enabled, developers can use CLI commands like sfdx force:package:create and sfdx force:package:version:create to manage modular development effectively.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A. Enable only Unlocked Packages
While Unlocked Packages are critical, leaving 2GP disabled reduces flexibility. Having both enabled allows the organization to use either model based on the project requirements.

B. Enable Dev Hub and Source Tracking
This is unnecessary. Dev Hub is already enabled (as scratch orgs are in use), and Source Tracking is a default feature of scratch orgs. These steps are unrelated to activating package capabilities.

D. Enable Dev Hub and 2GP
While partially correct, this option neglects enabling Unlocked Packages, which UC plans to use. Without this, package development cannot begin.

Therefore, the administrator must enable both Unlocked Packages and Second-Generation Managed Packages to fully support Salesforce DX’s package development capabilities. This unlocks all necessary tools to implement a modular, scalable, and source-driven application development lifecycle.

Question 7:

Universal Containers (UC) has a single Salesforce org supporting both Sales Cloud and Service Cloud. The Sales Cloud team is developing in a Dev Pro sandbox (DevPro1) with a three-month delivery plan. The Service Cloud team, working on a faster four-week timeline, depends on some components from DevPro1. However, DevPro1 was updated two weeks ago to a preview version of the next Salesforce release. 

The team is considering creating another sandbox (DevPro2) for the Service Cloud stream. What should the architect recommend?

A. Clone DevPro1 and name it DevPro2 for the Service Cloud work
B. Reject the idea of a second work stream due to associated risks
C. Let both teams work within the same DevPro1 sandbox
D. Since DevPro1 is on a newer version than Production, it can’t be cloned—create DevPro2 from Production and migrate metadata manually

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

In Salesforce, managing development across multiple teams and clouds requires thoughtful sandbox planning, especially when those teams follow different delivery schedules. In this case, the Sales Cloud team is working in DevPro1, which has already been upgraded to a preview release. Meanwhile, the Service Cloud team requires some of the same work but has a tighter timeline.

The best course of action is to create a new DevPro2 sandbox from Production and then manually migrate the required components from DevPro1. This is necessary because Salesforce does not allow sandboxes on preview releases to be cloned, as they are running on a different major version than the Production org. Cloning from a sandbox that’s on a different release version could cause compatibility issues or be outright restricted.

This approach allows each team to work in isolation, protecting the integrity of their timelines and avoiding development conflicts. DevPro2 will be on the same version as Production, ensuring any work done there is ready for near-term deployment.

Let’s review why the other options are not appropriate:

• A (Clone DevPro1) isn’t feasible because the source sandbox is on a different version from Production. Cloning in this scenario would either fail or be blocked in the Salesforce UI.

• B (Push back on the second work stream) isn’t constructive. Architects are expected to find feasible paths forward, not just reject plans due to risk.

• C (Work together in DevPro1) creates unnecessary complications such as overlapping work, increased coordination burden, and potential release delays. This would also expose the Service Cloud stream to instability due to ongoing development on the preview release.

To maintain clean development streams and respect the different release timelines, the architect should recommend creating a new sandbox aligned with Production and manually deploying the necessary components. This maintains compliance with Salesforce limitations and supports both delivery schedules.

Question 8:

Universal Containers (UC) is preparing to launch its Customer Community for the EMEA region in three months. The company follows a centralized governance model. Two weeks ago, new compliance requirements were introduced.

Which will increase project costs by 30%. Who has the authority to approve this additional funding?

A. Security Review Committee
B. Executive Steering Committee
C. Project Management Committee
D. Change Control Board

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

In organizations with a centralized governance model, major decisions—particularly those involving budgetary changes or strategic scope adjustments—are escalated to the appropriate authority. In this scenario, the new compliance requirements introduce a significant 30% increase in project cost, and approval for such a change must come from a body with executive-level financial authority.

The Executive Steering Committee (ESC) is the correct body to approve this change. The ESC typically comprises senior executives and key business sponsors who oversee project alignment with corporate goals, financial resources, and strategic outcomes. Their role includes:

• Approving large budget increases

• Making go/no-go decisions on major project changes

• Evaluating trade-offs between risk, cost, and timelines

A 30% budget escalation is well beyond the scope of routine project adjustments. It could impact resource allocation, corporate planning, and project prioritization. Only the ESC has the authority and context to approve or deny such a significant financial decision.

Here’s why the other options are inappropriate:

• A (Security Review Committee) focuses on validating system security, data protection measures, and compliance. They may flag the need for changes but do not control funding.

• C (Project Management Committee) typically manages execution-level activities—scheduling, coordination, risk tracking, and progress updates. While they manage the budget day-to-day, they do not have the mandate to approve major increases.

• D (Change Control Board) oversees scope and technical change requests, ensuring alignment with project goals. However, their financial authority is usually limited. Budget-impacting changes of this magnitude must be escalated to executive-level oversight.

In conclusion, because the change involves a 30% increase in costs and potentially shifts the strategic direction of the project, only the Executive Steering Committee has the governance authority to evaluate and approve this escalation. Hence, B is the correct answer.

Question 9:

Universal Containers operates several Salesforce orgs to support different business units. An architect has identified that consolidating customer data across these orgs could help build a more unified customer profile. 

Which two recommendations would best support this goal? (Choose two.)

A. Use a Complete Graph strategy where each org directly connects with all other orgs to share customer data.
B. Shift from multiple orgs to a single org to centralize all customer data.
C. Deploy a managed package to every org that reads and combines customer data into a single view.
D. Use a Hub-and-Spoke model where one org acts as the master for customer data and other orgs integrate with it.

Correct Answers: B and D

Explanation:

When a company like Universal Containers (UC) runs several Salesforce orgs across different business units, customer data often becomes fragmented. This limits the ability to gain a 360-degree customer view. To resolve this, architects can implement strategies that either consolidate data or federate it across multiple environments in a manageable and scalable way.

Why Option B is correct:

Migrating to a single-org strategy offers the most straightforward path to consolidating customer data. This approach centralizes all operations, processes, and records into one Salesforce environment, offering several key advantages:

• A truly unified customer view accessible to all business units.

• Easier governance and data access management.

• Improved consistency in reporting, analytics, and automation.

• Lower complexity in managing integrations, security, and customizations.

However, this method requires careful planning, as it involves significant effort around data migration, process alignment, and change management. It’s ideal when the business units have overlapping customer sets or similar processes.

Why Option D is correct:

If moving to a single org is not feasible—due to regulatory constraints, business model separation, or technical limitations—a Hub-and-Spoke model is the most effective alternative. Here’s how it works:

• A central org (Hub) serves as the system of record for customer data.

• Other Salesforce orgs (Spokes) interact with the Hub using API integrations or middleware solutions.

• Data synchronization ensures that all orgs have access to the most up-to-date customer information.

This approach allows each LOB to maintain operational independence while enabling a consolidated customer profile for strategic insights.

Why the other options are not ideal:

• A (Complete Graph Strategy): While technically possible, connecting each org directly to every other leads to exponential growth in integration complexity. This model is not scalable and becomes increasingly difficult to manage.

• C (Single Package Strategy): Managed packages are suitable for deploying functionality, not for synchronizing or centralizing real-time data across orgs. Without a middleware or data hub, this approach won’t provide a consolidated customer view.

Therefore, to create a 360-degree customer view across multiple orgs, the best strategies are to either consolidate to a single org (B) or build a Hub-and-Spoke integration model (D).

Question 10:

Universal Containers is planning to introduce a change policy that allows admins to implement low-risk, minor updates directly in production. The company does not currently use CI/CD tools. 

What are the three best practices an architect should recommend to support this approach? (Choose three.)

A. Ensure all changes are still tested before deployment.
B. Require a CI/CD pipeline before making any changes.
C. Recognize that changes in production won’t automatically reflect in other environments.
D. Allow undocumented changes to be made anytime.
E. Keep a clear record of changes and apply them on a regular, planned schedule.

Correct Answers: A, C, and E

Explanation:

Allowing admins to make minor, low-risk changes directly in production can offer agility, but without CI/CD pipelines, there are risks of inconsistency and lack of traceability. To mitigate these risks, a structured approach is essential—even for small updates.

Why Option A is correct:

Testing remains crucial, regardless of how minor the change may seem. Even small configuration tweaks can lead to unforeseen side effects, especially in highly customized orgs. Proper testing in a sandbox or scratch org helps ensure the change functions correctly and doesn’t inadvertently disrupt other parts of the system.

Testing also helps validate the logic behind a change, confirm user expectations, and provides a last line of defense before introducing updates to live data and workflows.

Why Option C is correct:

When changes are made directly in production, they do not automatically sync to lower environments like sandboxes or dev orgs. This causes environment drift, where configuration and metadata between orgs become inconsistent. Over time, this can complicate deployments and testing.

Admins need to manually track and replicate changes in downstream environments to ensure alignment and avoid reintroducing old bugs or missing enhancements in future development cycles.

Why Option E is correct:

Documenting all changes—no matter how minor—is critical for maintaining an audit trail and ensuring transparency. It helps future admins or developers understand why a change was made and what it was intended to do.

Establishing a standard cadence (e.g., weekly change windows) improves predictability. It also enables teams to review proposed changes in advance, reducing the risk of uncoordinated or disruptive updates.

Why the other options are incorrect:

• B (CI/CD is required): While CI/CD is a best practice, it’s not a requirement for handling minor changes. Organizations can still implement effective governance using manual procedures, as long as they include testing, documentation, and scheduling.

• D (No need to document or schedule): This approach is dangerous and leads to a lack of accountability. It increases the risk of errors, makes debugging difficult, and introduces compliance issues.

In summary, a successful minor change policy must involve testing (A), recognition of environment drift (C), and solid documentation with a defined process (E)—even in the absence of CI/CD.