ISC CISSP-ISSAP Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions

Question 1:

A bank's ATM was forcefully broken into and robbed. Which physical security tool would be most suitable for reviewing and analyzing the events surrounding the incident?

A Key card
B Biometric devices
C Intrusion detection systems
D CCTV Cameras

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

When investigating an ATM robbery that involved physical tampering or forced entry, the most effective method for analyzing the event after it has occurred is the use of CCTV cameras. CCTV (Closed-Circuit Television) systems provide continuous video monitoring and are commonly installed at ATMs and other high-security locations. These cameras capture visual records that are invaluable for verifying criminal activity, identifying perpetrators, and reviewing the sequence of events.

Let’s examine why the other options are less suitable in this context:

A. Key cards are generally used for access control, allowing authorized individuals to enter secure areas. However, they do not provide any visual or behavioral data about what transpired during a criminal event. Key card logs might help trace who accessed an area, but they cannot confirm or document a robbery unless correlated with other data.

B. Biometric devices—like fingerprint readers or facial recognition systems—are designed to authenticate individuals before granting access. While these devices can help prevent unauthorized access, they typically don’t record contextual information like actions taken by a person once access is granted or forcibly bypassed. Moreover, during a robbery, biometric systems are usually not involved unless the attackers interact with them.

C. Intrusion detection systems (IDS) are useful in alerting personnel or triggering alarms when unauthorized access is attempted. They serve a preventive function and may log the time and nature of a breach, but they don’t provide detailed evidence or visual confirmation. Their data is limited to alerts and logs rather than comprehensive incident analysis.

D. CCTV cameras, in contrast, offer direct video footage that can be replayed to see exactly what occurred. This includes the identity of the intruders (if visible), how the machine was breached, the tools used, and possibly even the getaway method. This information is crucial for law enforcement investigations and can also be used in court.

Thus, CCTV cameras are the most reliable and practical tool for both verifying and historically analyzing ATM robberies.

Question 2:

Which cryptographic service guarantees that sensitive data on a local network remains hidden from unauthorized individuals?

A Authentication
B Non-repudiation
C Integrity
D Confidentiality

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

The correct cryptographic service that ensures sensitive data remains inaccessible to unauthorized individuals is Confidentiality. Confidentiality is one of the core principles of information security and plays a central role in protecting data privacy. It is typically enforced through encryption methods that convert readable data into an unreadable format unless the recipient has the appropriate decryption key.

Encryption algorithms—such as AES (Advanced Encryption Standard)—are widely used to protect data during transmission over a network or while it is stored. Without the right cryptographic key, unauthorized users cannot decipher the encrypted data, thereby preserving confidentiality.

Let’s consider the other options to see why they do not apply in this specific context:

A. Authentication is the process of verifying the identity of a user or system. It ensures that users are who they claim to be, typically using usernames, passwords, or biometric data. While it does prevent unauthorized users from accessing a system, it does not directly encrypt or shield the data itself from being read if intercepted.

B. Non-repudiation involves techniques like digital signatures that prevent a sender from denying the authenticity of a message or transaction. This is important for accountability and legal validity, but it has no role in preventing data from being read by unintended recipients.

C. Integrity ensures that data has not been altered or tampered with. It guarantees that the content received is exactly what was sent. This is typically achieved using hashing algorithms. While it’s crucial for validating the accuracy of data, it does not protect the data from being seen by unauthorized users.

In conclusion, Confidentiality is the essential service when the goal is to prevent information disclosure on a network. It ensures that only authorized individuals can access the contents of a message or file, effectively securing sensitive data from exposure or theft.

Question 3:

Which of the following best describes the primary focus of the ISSAP domain "Architecture Implementation"?

A Protection of information systems through secure application design
B Defining and managing security architecture frameworks and principles
C Designing and deploying secure infrastructure components in alignment with business requirements
D Conducting risk assessments and vulnerability analysis

Answer: C

Explanation:

The ISSAP (Information Systems Security Architecture Professional) certification focuses on advanced security architecture topics. The "Architecture Implementation" domain centers on the actual design and deployment of security controls and infrastructure components—such as network security devices, access controls, and encryption mechanisms—to meet the organization’s security and business goals.

Option A relates more to secure software/application design, typically covered by the software security or development domains, not ISSAP’s architecture implementation. Option B deals with the broader governance and framework definitions, often linked to ISSAP's architecture design and planning phases. Option D relates more closely to risk management and assessment, which is a foundational domain of CISSP but not specifically ISSAP architecture implementation.

Hence, the best choice describing the architecture implementation focus is C — designing and deploying secure infrastructure components aligned with business needs.

Question 4:

Which of the following types of attacks cannot be prevented by technical measures only?

A Social engineering
B Brute force
C Smurf DoS
D Ping flood attack

Correct answer: A

Explanation:

Social engineering is a type of attack that targets human psychology rather than relying solely on technological vulnerabilities. It involves deceiving individuals into providing confidential information, clicking malicious links, or performing unauthorized actions. While technology can help detect or reduce the chances of these attacks (e.g., email filters for phishing or endpoint protection tools), they cannot fully prevent them because the core of the attack relies on human interaction and trust.

Let’s examine each option in detail:

A. Social engineering:
This is the correct answer. Social engineering attacks often take the form of phishing emails, deceptive phone calls (vishing), impersonation, or baiting. These attacks trick people into breaking normal security protocols. While technical tools can help reduce exposure—such as spam filters or anti-phishing tools—only user training, awareness programs, and a strong organizational security culture can truly mitigate these risks. Technical solutions alone are not enough.

B. Brute force:
Brute force attacks involve an attacker systematically guessing credentials until the correct one is found. These can be effectively countered by several technical measures: limiting login attempts, enforcing strong password policies, enabling two-factor authentication, and using CAPTCHAs. Because these measures are technical and directly mitigate the attack method, brute force can be mostly prevented through technology.

C. Smurf DoS:
A Smurf DoS attack is a type of distributed denial-of-service attack where ICMP echo requests are sent to a broadcast address with the victim's IP address spoofed as the source. The resulting flood of ICMP replies overwhelms the target. This attack can be mitigated by disabling IP-directed broadcasts on routers, using intrusion prevention systems, and implementing proper firewall rules—all of which are technical controls.

D. Ping flood attack:
This attack overwhelms a target system with ICMP Echo Request (ping) packets. It's a classic DoS method and can be thwarted by rate-limiting ICMP requests, using firewalls, and configuring intrusion detection/prevention systems. All these defenses are technical in nature.

Among the options, only social engineering (A) requires non-technical defenses—primarily security awareness training and organizational policy enforcement. All the other attacks can be mitigated with the right technical measures. Therefore, the correct answer is A.

Question 5:

Which authentication protocol is designed to stop unauthorized users from executing code on remote systems?

A TACACS
B S-RPC
C RADIUS
D CHAP

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service) is a protocol that effectively manages user authentication, authorization, and accounting in network environments. One of its key strengths is preventing unauthorized users from executing code or commands on remote systems. This is accomplished through its centralized authentication mechanism, where users must first validate their credentials before gaining access to any remote resources.

RADIUS typically integrates with a central directory, such as Active Directory or LDAP, to authenticate users and assign permissions. Once authenticated, RADIUS can enforce role-based access control (RBAC), restricting users to only the actions and resources for which they are authorized. For example, a user may be authenticated to access a remote server but will be denied permission to execute certain administrative commands. This ensures that malicious or unprivileged users cannot perform unauthorized actions, such as running potentially harmful code.

Let’s compare the other options:
A. TACACS: While TACACS (Terminal Access Controller Access-Control System) is also used for authentication and offers fine-grained command control, it is more tailored to managing network devices like routers and switches. Unlike RADIUS, TACACS does not offer comprehensive access control for broader remote systems or user environments.

B. S-RPC: Secure Remote Procedure Call (S-RPC) facilitates secure communication between networked systems but is not an authentication protocol. It allows one system to invoke procedures on another securely but lacks the capacity to validate user permissions for code execution.

D. CHAP: The Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol is mainly used in point-to-point communication, such as dial-up connections. While it provides identity verification through a challenge-response mechanism, it doesn’t govern access rights or execution privileges on a remote system.

In summary, RADIUS stands out because it not only authenticates users but also enforces authorization rules that limit what users can do post-authentication. This makes it highly effective in preventing unauthorized code execution on remote systems.

Question 6:

Which electrical incident involves a brief dip in voltage levels that may disrupt PC or network operations?

A Blackout
B Power spike
C Power sag
D Power surge

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

A power sag is a short-term drop in voltage within an electrical power supply system. Although often lasting just milliseconds to a few seconds, this brief dip can have significant effects on sensitive electronic devices, including personal computers and networking equipment. When voltage drops below the expected threshold, devices may malfunction, freeze, reboot unexpectedly, or even experience hardware damage if the condition persists.

Power sags commonly occur when large appliances or industrial machinery are started, momentarily drawing an unusually high current and leaving other devices temporarily underpowered. Other causes include poor wiring, grid fluctuations, or sudden changes in load demand. Unlike total outages, power sags can be difficult to detect until equipment shows signs of irregular behavior—making them especially insidious in environments reliant on consistent power.

Let’s examine why the other options are incorrect:
A. Blackout: A blackout is a complete loss of electrical power, not a reduction in voltage. It leads to total device shutdown, unlike a sag which results in underperformance or instability rather than full power loss.

B. Power spike: A spike is a sudden, sharp increase in voltage, typically caused by lightning or switching surges. These events can damage circuits but represent an increase—not a decrease—in power levels.

D. Power surge: Similar to a spike, a power surge involves an increase in voltage, albeit over a slightly longer period. Surges can degrade electronics but are fundamentally different from sags, which involve reduced voltage.

Overall, power sags are particularly concerning for computers and networking systems because even a brief voltage dip can corrupt data, cause system crashes, or shorten the lifespan of sensitive components. That’s why surge protectors and uninterruptible power supplies (UPS) are often used as preventive measures in environments that demand consistent power quality. For these reasons, the correct answer is C, as a power sag precisely describes the condition of a sudden voltage drop that negatively affects PC and network performance.

Question 7:

Which of the following input devices is commonly used to operate and control equipment such as cranes, trucks, underwater drones, surveillance systems, wheelchairs, and specialized lawn mowers?

A PS/2
B Joystick
C Microphone
D AGP

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

A joystick is a specialized input device that allows precise directional control, making it ideal for operating various machinery and vehicles. It provides a user-friendly interface for managing movement in two or more axes—typically forward-backward and left-right—through a single control stick. This control mechanism is particularly useful in applications where intuitive, responsive operation is critical, such as maneuvering cranes, operating remote-controlled underwater vehicles, directing motorized wheelchairs, managing surveillance camera angles, and steering zero-turn lawn mowers.

Joysticks are favored in these contexts because they allow operators to make real-time adjustments with minimal physical effort. In industrial or accessibility-focused environments, the joystick's ergonomic design and simple motion translation make it an indispensable tool. Additionally, joysticks are often used in video games and flight simulators to emulate real-world vehicle controls, emphasizing their utility in directional input tasks.

Now let’s consider the incorrect options:

• A. PS/2: This is a legacy hardware interface used to connect keyboards and mice to a computer. It is not a standalone input device and cannot be used for controlling heavy machinery or vehicles.

• C. Microphone: While a microphone is indeed an input device, it serves the purpose of capturing audio signals rather than controlling physical movement or machinery. Its function is unrelated to mechanical or vehicular control.

• D. AGP (Accelerated Graphics Port): AGP is a type of expansion slot used to connect graphics cards to a motherboard. It is neither an input nor a control device but rather a hardware interface for graphical data output.

In conclusion, the joystick is the correct choice because of its widespread use in applications requiring responsive and multi-directional control of various mechanical systems and vehicles.

Question 8:

Which IPSec protocol feature is responsible for shrinking data payloads to optimize network transmission efficiency, especially on crowded or slow network links?

A AH
B ESP
C IPcomp
D IKE

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

Within the IPSec protocol suite, IPcomp (IP Payload Compression Protocol) plays a unique role in improving network efficiency by compressing data before it is transmitted. Unlike encryption or authentication components, which focus on security, IPcomp addresses performance by reducing the size of the IP payload. This process minimizes the amount of data that needs to be transferred, especially beneficial in bandwidth-constrained or latency-sensitive environments.

When data is compressed, it occupies less space in the IP packet. This smaller packet size results in faster transmission, lower congestion, and better overall throughput across networks. IPcomp uses compression algorithms such as DEFLATE to achieve these size reductions without compromising data integrity. Importantly, compression is performed before encryption in the IPSec process, ensuring it doesn’t interfere with data security.

Let’s examine why the other options are incorrect:

• A. AH (Authentication Header): AH is designed to provide packet-level authentication and ensure that data has not been altered in transit. It verifies the integrity and origin of the data but does not perform any form of compression. Its function is limited to authentication and integrity checks.

• B. ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload): ESP provides encryption and optional integrity protection. It ensures confidentiality but, in many cases, may actually increase packet size due to added encryption headers and padding. ESP secures the data but does not reduce its size.

• D. IKE (Internet Key Exchange): IKE is used to establish secure tunnels and negotiate cryptographic keys for IPSec communication. It handles setup and management of security associations but has no role in modifying the data size.

In summary, IPcomp is specifically designed to improve network performance by compressing IP payloads, making it the correct answer for situations that demand efficient data transmission without compromising content.

Question 9:

A helpdesk technician revealed the root password to a caller who appeared friendly but was never authenticated as an administrator. 

What kind of security threat does this situation illustrate?

A Social Engineering attack
B Brute Force attack
C War Dialing attack
D Replay attack

Correct answer: A

Explanation:

This situation represents a social engineering attack, which is a non-technical method used by attackers to manipulate people into giving up confidential information. Instead of exploiting software or hardware vulnerabilities, the attacker targets the human element by appearing trustworthy, persuasive, or authoritative. In this case, the attacker convinced the helpdesk technician to disclose a highly sensitive password simply by pretending to be an administrator and behaving in a friendly manner.

Social engineering relies on exploiting psychological triggers such as trust, fear, urgency, or helpfulness. The helpdesk technician failed to verify the identity of the caller and instead trusted the apparent friendliness of the individual, leading to a serious security breach. This is a classic case where an attacker bypasses technical defenses by going after human fallibility.

Option B, brute force attack, is incorrect because that method involves repeatedly guessing passwords through automated trial-and-error, not through interaction with a person.
Option C, war dialing, refers to the automated dialing of a list of phone numbers to find systems such as modems, not relevant in this scenario.
Option D, a replay attack, involves intercepting and retransmitting data to gain unauthorized access, which is not what happened here.

This incident underscores the importance of strict identity verification protocols, especially when sensitive data like root passwords are requested. Even well-meaning staff members can inadvertently become the weakest link in an organization’s security posture. Training and awareness are key defenses against social engineering, along with a clear set of protocols for verifying anyone requesting access to critical systems or information.

Question 10:

Which statement accurately defines the role of a certification authority (CA) in digital security?

A A method used to validate documents using cryptographic techniques
B A form of encryption that utilizes a public-private key pair
C An entity responsible for issuing digital certificates to verify identities
D An encryption system that uses the same key for encryption and decryption

Correct answer: C

Explanation:

A certification authority (CA) is a trusted organization or entity responsible for issuing digital certificates used in public key infrastructure (PKI). These certificates confirm the identity of an individual, device, or organization and associate it with a public cryptographic key. The CA serves as a trusted third party, vouching for the legitimacy of the certificate holder and thus enabling secure communications over networks like the internet.

The digital certificate issued by the CA includes important details such as the owner’s public key, the certificate’s validity period, and the CA’s digital signature. This system builds trust between communicating parties, allowing them to verify each other’s identities and encrypt communications securely.

Option A is incorrect because it focuses on general cryptographic validation of documents but does not specify the CA’s key role in issuing identity-linked certificates.
Option B is misleading. While it describes public key encryption — a core concept in PKI — it doesn’t define what a certification authority does, which is to issue certificates, not perform encryption.
Option D is inaccurate because it describes symmetric encryption, which uses the same key for both encrypting and decrypting data. Certification authorities operate within asymmetric encryption frameworks, where public and private keys are used — but again, their main function is identity validation through certificates, not encryption itself.

In summary, a certification authority enables digital trust by acting as a verifier of identity and issuing certificates that bind public keys to verified entities. This infrastructure allows users and systems to interact securely in digital environments, making C the correct and most precise answer.