CompTIA CAS-004 Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions

Question 1:

An organization is developing a Business Continuity Plan (BCP) based on the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) guidelines. During this effort, the organization is assessing its internal operations to determine which processes and systems are critical and need to be prioritized.

Which stage of the BCP process specifically focuses on identifying and ranking the critical business functions and systems to ensure essential operations continue during a disruption?

A. Reviewing a recent gap analysis
B. Conducting a cost-benefit analysis
C. Performing a business impact analysis
D. Creating an exposure factor matrix

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

In the lifecycle of Business Continuity Planning, the Business Impact Analysis (BIA) is a fundamental phase focused on identifying which business functions and systems are essential to the organization’s ongoing operation. The purpose of the BIA is to analyze the consequences of disruptions to these critical processes and to establish their priority for recovery.

During the BIA, the organization evaluates the potential operational, financial, and reputational impacts if certain systems or services were to be interrupted. This assessment helps establish Recovery Time Objectives (RTOs) and Recovery Point Objectives (RPOs)—key metrics that guide how quickly systems need to be restored and how much data loss is acceptable.

The outcome of the BIA shapes the recovery strategy by clearly highlighting which functions must be maintained or restored first to minimize downtime and ensure continuity of mission-critical operations. This allows organizations to allocate resources effectively and prioritize their continuity efforts according to real business needs.

Why the other choices are less suitable:

• A (Reviewing a recent gap analysis): A gap analysis identifies deficiencies between current capabilities and desired states but does not specifically rank critical systems for recovery. It is a broader assessment tool, not directly tied to prioritization within the BCP.

• B (Performing a cost-benefit analysis): This evaluates the financial feasibility of recovery options but follows the BIA phase. It does not itself identify or prioritize critical functions.

• D (Developing an exposure factor matrix): This tool helps quantify potential asset loss during disasters but focuses on risk measurement rather than identifying mission-essential functions.

In summary, conducting a Business Impact Analysis is the essential step in the BCP process that identifies and prioritizes the systems and functions critical to sustaining business operations during interruptions, making it the most accurate answer.

Question 2:

An organization plans to move its production environment from an on-premises data center to a cloud-based service. The lead security architect raises concerns that the traditional risk management approaches the organization uses may not be fully applicable once systems operate in the cloud.

Why might conventional risk management strategies be inadequate or unsuitable when transitioning to a cloud environment?

A. Migrating operations means accepting all risks without mitigation
B. Cloud providers cannot eliminate risks inherent to computing environments
C. Certain risks cannot be shifted to the cloud provider and remain the organization’s responsibility
D. Risks related to data stored in the cloud are impossible to mitigate

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

When an organization transitions to cloud computing, the traditional approach to risk management often needs adjustment because the responsibility for security and risk is shared between the cloud provider and the customer—a model known as the shared responsibility model. Unlike fully on-premises environments where the organization controls most security elements, in the cloud, the provider secures the underlying infrastructure, while the customer remains responsible for managing their data, applications, and configurations.

The key reason traditional risk management methods may not directly apply is that not all risks can be transferred to the cloud provider. For example, cloud providers are responsible for physical security of data centers, hypervisor security, and network infrastructure. However, risks related to data protection, access management, identity governance, and configuration errors remain with the organization. Failure to properly secure these aspects can lead to breaches or data loss.

Why the other options are incorrect:

• A (Accepting all risks): Risk management is about identifying, assessing, and mitigating risks rather than blindly accepting them. Cloud migration requires careful evaluation and proactive risk treatment, not risk acceptance without action.

• B (Cloud providers cannot avoid risks): Although cloud providers cannot eliminate all risk, they reduce many risks through robust infrastructure, security controls, and certifications. This option oversimplifies the relationship and does not address shared responsibility.

• D (Data risks cannot be mitigated): This is false; numerous cloud-native and third-party tools exist for encryption, identity and access management, monitoring, and threat detection that effectively reduce data risks.

In conclusion, the fundamental reason traditional risk management strategies may not fully apply in the cloud is the division of responsibilities where certain risks remain with the organization. Understanding and adapting to this shared responsibility model is essential for effective risk management in cloud environments, making option C the best choice.

Question 3:

A company has released an external application for customers, but a security researcher recently found a critical LDAP injection flaw that could let attackers bypass authentication and authorization. 

Which two measures would be the most effective to fix this LDAP injection vulnerability?

A. Implement input sanitization
B. Deploy a SIEM system
C. Use containerization
D. Patch the operating system
E. Use a Web Application Firewall (WAF)
F. Deploy a reverse proxy
G. Use an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)

Correct Answer: A, E

Explanation:

LDAP Injection occurs when attackers manipulate LDAP queries by injecting malicious input, often due to improper input validation or sanitization. This vulnerability can allow unauthorized users to bypass security controls like authentication and authorization, which poses a significant risk to any application relying on LDAP for user verification or access control.

The primary way to prevent LDAP injection is to ensure that any user-supplied data included in LDAP queries is carefully sanitized and validated before use. Input sanitization removes or neutralizes special characters and constructs that could alter the query’s logic. This measure directly addresses the root cause of LDAP injection, making input sanitization (Option A) one of the most crucial defenses.

Additionally, deploying a Web Application Firewall (WAF) (Option E) offers a strong second layer of defense. A WAF inspects incoming HTTP requests and blocks those that match known attack patterns, including LDAP injection attempts. While a WAF doesn’t fix the application code itself, it can reduce the attack surface by filtering malicious inputs before they reach the backend system.

Other options, such as deploying a SIEM (B) or an IDS (G), focus on detecting suspicious activities rather than preventing the vulnerability itself, making them reactive rather than proactive. Containerization (C) and OS patching (D) are good general security practices but do not specifically address the LDAP injection flaw. Similarly, reverse proxies (F) manage traffic flow but don’t inherently protect against injection vulnerabilities.

In summary, the most effective approach is a combination of proper input sanitization to prevent malicious input from altering LDAP queries, supported by a WAF to block harmful traffic, thereby mitigating LDAP injection vulnerabilities effectively.

Question 4:

A company moved its retail sales system to a cloud environment before the holiday season but encountered availability and performance problems. International users faced slow image loads, inventory errors appeared during order placement, and even after adding ten new API servers, peak time load remained high. 

Which infrastructure improvements would best resolve these issues going forward?

A. Use distributed CDNs for static content, create a read replica for database reporting, and implement auto-scaling for API servers
B. Increase bandwidth for image delivery, implement a CDN, switch to a non-relational database, and split API servers across two load balancers
C. Serve images from object storage with infrequent reads, replicate the database across regions, and create API servers dynamically based on load
D. Serve static content from multi-region object storage, increase the database instance size, and distribute API servers across multiple regions

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

The challenges the company is facing stem from performance bottlenecks and scalability issues impacting user experience and operational efficiency. Each identified problem requires targeted infrastructure solutions:

First, international users reported latency when loading images. This is typically caused by distance and network delays. Using a Content Delivery Network (CDN) solves this by caching static content like images in servers distributed globally, reducing latency by delivering content from a location closer to the user. Option A correctly suggests distributing static content via CDNs to address this.

Second, users encountered inventory issues during report processing. This usually indicates the central database is under heavy load from read operations. Creating a read replica allows read-only queries, like generating reports, to be offloaded from the primary database. This reduces contention and improves performance on the main transactional database, a best practice reflected in Option A.

Third, even with ten additional API servers, the system was still heavily loaded during peak traffic. Static resource allocation is inefficient when demand fluctuates. Auto-scaling API servers based on performance metrics dynamically adjusts the number of servers to match real-time load, improving availability and responsiveness. Option A includes this auto-scaling feature, directly tackling the load issue.

Other options, while partially addressing some aspects, either miss key components or introduce inefficiencies. For example, increasing bandwidth alone won’t solve database or API scaling challenges, and switching to a non-relational database may not suit retail inventory needs where relational integrity is critical.

In conclusion, Option A offers a comprehensive solution by combining CDNs, database read replicas, and auto-scaling API servers to enhance performance, availability, and scalability, making it the most effective choice.

Question 5:

A company has relocated its IT equipment to a secure storage room equipped with cameras on both sides of the entrance. The door is protected by a card reader, and only security staff and department managers are authorized to enter. The company wants to detect if any unauthorized persons gain entry by following authorized employees. 

Which security measure would best fulfill this requirement?

A. Review camera footage that corresponds to authorized access events.
B. Require both security and management personnel to unlock the door together.
C. Have department managers examine denied-access logs.
D. Reissue entry badges on a weekly basis.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

The company’s objective is to identify unauthorized individuals who might enter the secure room by "piggybacking" or tailgating behind authorized personnel. This is a common security concern where someone without proper clearance follows an authorized user to gain entry without authentication.

Option A is the most effective method because it combines physical security measures with real-time or recorded monitoring. By reviewing camera footage that aligns with authorized card access logs, security teams can visually verify who actually enters the room each time access is granted. This approach allows immediate identification of unauthorized individuals who bypass card access by following authorized employees.

Other options are less practical or effective for this specific problem:

• Option B, requiring dual authorization from both security and management to open the door, while increasing the control level, could cause operational delays and does not inherently guarantee that piggybacking is prevented or detected. It might reduce unauthorized access but does not provide a method for identification after the fact.

• Option C involves reviewing denied-access logs, which are useful for auditing but will not catch unauthorized persons who entered by following someone else since those individuals do not generate an access denial.

• Option D suggests reissuing badges frequently, which is more about credential management than detecting piggybacking. It will not directly prevent or identify unauthorized entry after an authorized person unlocks the door.

Monitoring camera footage linked to valid access events allows for a direct, evidence-based way to detect and respond to unauthorized entry, making it the best approach to meet the company’s security goals.

Question 6:

A company is preparing to launch a global service and needs to ensure it complies with the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR). Which two actions are required for GDPR compliance?

A. Notify users about the types of personal data collected and stored.
B. Provide users with opt-in or opt-out options for marketing communications.
C. Enable users to request deletion of their personal data.
D. Offer optional encryption of stored personal data.
E. Allow third parties to access user data.
F. Implement alternative authentication methods.

Correct Answers: A, C

Explanation:

The GDPR, enacted by the European Union, is a comprehensive regulation designed to protect the personal data and privacy rights of EU citizens. Compliance with GDPR is mandatory for any organization processing such data, regardless of their geographic location.

Two fundamental principles of GDPR are transparency and data subject rights. Transparency means organizations must clearly inform users about what personal data they collect, how it will be used, and for how long it will be retained. This is why Option A (informing users about stored data) is essential. Companies typically fulfill this by publishing privacy notices, consent forms, or data protection policies to maintain clear communication with data subjects.

Option C (providing data deletion capabilities) is also crucial under GDPR. Known as the "right to be forgotten," this allows individuals to request the removal or anonymization of their personal data when it is no longer needed or if they withdraw consent. Organizations must have processes in place to honor such requests to remain compliant.

The other options, while relevant to security and privacy, are not mandatory GDPR requirements:

• Option B involves marketing consent management, important but not a fundamental compliance criterion across all data types.

• Option D suggests optional encryption, which is a recommended security measure but not explicitly mandated by GDPR.

• Option E involves third-party data sharing, which GDPR strictly regulates, and sharing without proper consent would breach compliance rather than ensure it.

• Option F relates to authentication methods, which GDPR does not specify directly; it focuses on data protection and user rights.

In summary, for GDPR compliance, the company must prioritize transparency about data collection and provide mechanisms for users to delete their data, protecting fundamental privacy rights under the regulation.

Question 7:

A SOC analyst is examining suspicious behavior on a publicly accessible web server. The analyst notices that certain traffic is not being recorded, and the Web Application Firewall (WAF) shows no activity related to the web application. 

What is the most probable reason for this lack of visibility?

A. The user agent of the client is incompatible with the WAF.
B. The WAF’s SSL certificate has expired.
C. HTTP traffic is not being redirected to HTTPS for decryption.
D. The server is using outdated and vulnerable cipher suites.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

Web Application Firewalls (WAFs) are designed to monitor and protect web applications by analyzing incoming and outgoing traffic, blocking malicious activity like SQL injection or cross-site scripting. For a WAF to function correctly, especially when inspecting HTTPS traffic, it must be able to decrypt the traffic first. This typically requires that encrypted traffic (HTTPS) be terminated or intercepted by the WAF so it can inspect the contents before forwarding it to the web server.

In this scenario, the analyst observes that specific traffic is missing from logs and the WAF lacks visibility over the web application’s traffic. This situation most often arises when unencrypted HTTP traffic is not being redirected to HTTPS. Without redirection, HTTP requests bypass the decryption process at the WAF, so the firewall cannot inspect or log these requests. The traffic remains in plaintext and is not captured for analysis, creating blind spots in monitoring.

Option A is less likely because WAFs are built to handle diverse client user agents; incompatibility rarely causes complete lack of logging. Option B might cause HTTPS connections to fail but would not affect HTTP traffic visibility, as HTTP does not rely on certificates. Option D pertains to the strength of encryption but does not directly result in missing traffic logs; instead, it may weaken security but not cause complete invisibility.

Thus, the primary cause of missing traffic logs and blind spots in WAF monitoring is the failure to redirect HTTP traffic to HTTPS, preventing the WAF from decrypting and inspecting the data. Proper configuration of SSL/TLS termination and traffic redirection is essential for comprehensive security monitoring and logging.

Question 8:

What is the correct term for the procedure where encryption keys are provided to a Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) or another trusted third party for safekeeping and management?

A. Key sharing
B. Key distribution
C. Key recovery
D. Key escrow

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

In cloud security and encryption management, handling encryption keys securely is critical. Sometimes, encryption keys are entrusted to a third party—such as a Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) or a dedicated key management service—to safeguard and control access. This practice ensures that keys are available when necessary, for example, during data recovery or regulatory audits, without compromising overall security.

The correct term for this process is key escrow. Key escrow involves depositing encryption keys with a trusted third party who holds them securely and can provide them to authorized individuals or systems under predetermined conditions. This arrangement balances the need for strong encryption with practical requirements like key recovery or lawful access.

Option A, key sharing, generally means giving multiple users access to the encryption keys but does not imply secure third-party custody or management. It often risks overexposure of the keys. Option B, key distribution, refers to the process of securely transmitting keys between entities, such as between clients and servers, but does not inherently involve third-party storage or management. Option C, key recovery, is the process of retrieving keys that have been lost or become inaccessible, but it does not describe the preemptive act of depositing keys with a third party.

In contrast, key escrow is a proactive security measure ensuring keys are safely held and can be accessed under authorized conditions. This is especially relevant in cloud environments where organizations delegate some security responsibilities to third parties but still require control and recovery options. The use of key escrow thus enables a secure and manageable approach to encryption key lifecycle management.

Question 9:

During a security incident, an analyst notices unusual outbound traffic from several workstations to unknown external IP addresses. 

Which of the following steps should the analyst take FIRST to investigate the potential compromise?

A. Isolate the affected workstations from the network to contain the threat
B. Collect and analyze network logs to identify the nature of the traffic
C. Notify management and escalate the incident
D. Update the antivirus software on the affected workstations

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

When unusual outbound traffic is detected, the primary objective is to understand the scope and nature of the potential threat before taking further action. The best initial step is to collect and analyze network logs (option B). This allows the analyst to gather evidence about what data is being sent, the destinations, timing, and volume of traffic. By analyzing these logs, the analyst can identify whether the outbound traffic is malicious (such as data exfiltration or command-and-control communications) or benign.

Why not isolate the workstations immediately (option A)? While isolating systems is a key containment strategy, doing so prematurely can disrupt business operations and may hinder further investigation. Analysts should first verify the extent and severity of the threat.

Notifying management (option C) is important but should come after gathering sufficient evidence and understanding the incident's impact. Escalation too early, without enough context, can cause unnecessary alarm.

Updating antivirus software (option D) is a routine preventive measure but not an immediate investigative action during a detected suspicious activity event. It may not stop active malicious traffic already occurring.

In summary, thorough log analysis is critical as a first step to understand suspicious activity, guide containment decisions, and plan remediation effectively.

Question 10:

A cybersecurity analyst receives an alert about multiple failed login attempts on a critical server. Which of the following actions BEST helps determine whether these attempts indicate a brute-force attack?

A. Reviewing account lockout policies and status for the server
B. Checking the source IP addresses of the failed login attempts
C. Resetting all user passwords associated with the server
D. Running a vulnerability scan on the server

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

To confirm whether multiple failed login attempts are part of a brute-force attack, the analyst should first check the source IP addresses involved in the failed logins (option B). Analyzing the IP addresses can reveal patterns such as numerous attempts originating from a single IP or multiple IPs distributed geographically, which is common in brute-force or credential stuffing attacks. This information can help identify whether the attempts are automated attacks or legitimate user errors.

Reviewing account lockout policies (option A) is important to understand protections in place but does not directly confirm if the failed attempts constitute an attack.

Resetting passwords (option C) is a mitigation step that could be taken later but is premature without understanding the attack's nature.

Running a vulnerability scan (option D) helps identify server weaknesses but does not relate directly to investigating login attempts.

Therefore, focusing on source IP analysis provides actionable intelligence to assess the attack vector and informs appropriate responses, such as blocking IP addresses or tightening authentication controls.