Isaca CISA Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions

Question 1:

As an IS auditor reviewing an organization’s business continuity plan (BCP), which issue should raise the most significant concern?

• A. The BCP has never been tested since its initial release.

• B. The BCP lacks version control.

• C. The contact information within the BCP is outdated.

• D. The BCP has not been formally approved by senior management.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

A Business Continuity Plan (BCP) is a crucial document designed to ensure an organization can maintain or quickly resume essential functions during and after a disruption or disaster. For an IS auditor evaluating a BCP, the primary focus is on the plan’s practical effectiveness—whether the organization is prepared to implement it successfully when needed.

Among the potential issues, the absence of any testing since the BCP was first created is the most critical problem. Testing a BCP validates that the documented procedures actually work in a real or simulated crisis situation. It reveals if personnel understand their roles, verifies communication protocols, and ensures that resources are adequate to support recovery efforts. Without testing, there is no evidence that the plan will function as intended, leaving the organization vulnerable to extended downtime, operational chaos, or data loss during an actual event.

While the other concerns are important, they don’t have the same immediate impact on operational readiness. For example, not having version control (Option B) can cause confusion and lead to outdated instructions being followed, but this is a documentation issue rather than a direct operational risk. Similarly, outdated contact information (Option C) can be quickly corrected and usually affects only communication efficiency, not the entire plan’s viability.

Lack of senior management approval (Option D) is a governance gap and reflects a lack of oversight and accountability. While serious from a compliance and policy standpoint, it does not guarantee operational failure if the plan has been well crafted and tested.

In conclusion, the most severe risk lies with an untested BCP, because testing is the only way to confirm that the plan is actionable and effective under real disaster conditions. Therefore, Option A is the greatest concern for an IS auditor.

Question 2:

When assessing computer system performance, which method provides the most valuable information?

• A. Optimizing system software settings to better utilize resources

• B. User complaints about slow response times

• C. Quantitative statistical data on resource usage and capacity

• D. Reports of performance and usage during off-peak periods

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

Evaluating computer performance requires objective and measurable data that clearly shows how system resources—such as CPU, memory, disk, and network—are being utilized under different workloads. Among the choices, statistical metrics that measure capacity utilization are the most effective tool for this purpose because they offer detailed, quantifiable insights into system behavior.

Option A, tuning system software, is an optimization action rather than an analysis tool. While tuning can improve performance, it relies on prior data to identify bottlenecks or inefficiencies. Without initial performance analysis, tuning is a shot in the dark.

Option B, user dissatisfaction reports, provides subjective feedback that indicates users experience poor performance. However, such reports lack technical detail and do not identify the root cause of performance problems. For example, slow response times could stem from many issues—CPU overload, memory leaks, network latency, or application faults—which cannot be diagnosed without supporting data.

Option C, statistical capacity metrics, encompass CPU usage percentages, memory consumption, disk I/O rates, and network throughput figures. These metrics allow performance analysts to spot bottlenecks, understand normal versus abnormal resource use, and predict future capacity needs. For instance, persistently high CPU utilization during peak hours signals the need for system scaling or resource reallocation, while low utilization combined with user complaints might point to software inefficiencies.

Option D, performance reports during off-peak times, have limited value for performance troubleshooting since they do not reflect conditions under maximum stress when problems are most likely to occur.

In summary, objective data from capacity utilization statistics forms the foundation for effective performance analysis and troubleshooting. It helps prioritize optimization efforts and supports strategic planning. Hence, Option C is the best choice for analyzing computer system performance.

Question 3:

What is the most significant risk when two users access and modify the same database record at the same time?

A. Entity integrity
B. Availability integrity
C. Referential integrity
D. Data integrity

Correct answer: D

Explanation:

When two or more users simultaneously access and modify the same record in a database, the primary concern is maintaining data integrity. Data integrity refers to the accuracy, consistency, and reliability of data throughout its entire lifecycle. Without proper controls, concurrent edits can cause conflicting changes that corrupt the data.

This issue often arises as a race condition or lost update problem, where one user's changes overwrite another’s unknowingly. For example, if two customer service agents update a customer’s address at the same time, and there are no concurrency controls such as locks or transactions, one update could be lost, leading to inaccurate or incomplete data being saved. This scenario directly violates the core principle of data integrity.

Now, considering the other options:

• Entity integrity ensures that each table’s primary key is unique and non-null. While important for data structure, it is less affected by concurrent updates to the same record unless creating or deleting keys.

• Availability integrity is not a commonly used database term. Typically, "availability" refers to system uptime and access rather than data correctness, so it does not capture the risk of simultaneous edits.

• Referential integrity guarantees that foreign keys correctly link to primary keys across tables. While critical for relational data, concurrent access to a single record rarely impacts these relationships unless deletion conflicts arise, which is a less common issue.

In summary, the greatest risk from concurrent access is the potential corruption or loss of data accuracy, making data integrity the main concern and thus the correct answer.

Question 4:

What is the most effective method for an organization to ensure that agreed-upon action plans from an Information Systems (IS) audit are actually carried out?

A. Assign clear ownership of the actions
B. Test corrective measures after they are implemented
C. Allocate adequate resources to the audit team
D. Share audit results across the entire organization

Correct answer: A

Explanation:

The success of an Information Systems audit hinges not only on identifying weaknesses but also on ensuring that corrective actions are implemented effectively. The most critical factor in guaranteeing follow-through is establishing clear ownership of the action plans.

Assigning ownership means designating specific individuals or teams responsible for executing each corrective measure. This accountability creates a sense of responsibility and commitment, which helps drive progress and ensures that actions are not overlooked or delayed. Owners can be tracked, held accountable, and provided with the necessary support to complete their tasks. Without clear ownership, even well-defined action plans risk being neglected.

Looking at the alternatives:

• Testing corrective actions (Option B) is vital to verify that fixes work, but it happens after implementation. It doesn’t ensure that actions are taken in the first place.

• Allocating audit resources (Option C) improves the audit process quality but does not influence the execution of remediation steps by other departments or teams.

• Communicating audit results widely (Option D) promotes transparency and awareness but doesn’t guarantee action. Without clear accountability, communication alone rarely leads to execution.

Therefore, the most effective approach to ensuring that audit recommendations are realized is to clearly assign ownership. This accountability mechanism drives action and is the foundation for successful audit remediation, making Option A the correct choice.

Question 5:

Which CCTV surveillance issue in a data center should an IS auditor consider the highest risk to security?

A. CCTV footage is not reviewed regularly.
B. CCTV recordings are deleted after one year.
C. CCTV surveillance does not run continuously 24/7.
D. CCTV cameras are absent from break room areas.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

In a data center environment, continuous CCTV monitoring plays a crucial role in maintaining physical security by recording all activities and helping detect unauthorized access or suspicious behavior. The most critical concern for an IS auditor among the options is the absence of 24/7 continuous recording (Option C).

If CCTV cameras do not record continuously, there are time windows during which security breaches could occur unnoticed. This creates a significant blind spot that undermines both real-time monitoring and post-incident investigations. For example, if a hardware theft or tampering happens during unmonitored periods, there may be no recorded evidence to identify the perpetrators or understand how the breach occurred. This gap could expose the organization to compliance violations and increase the risk of data center downtime or data loss.

The other options, while relevant, carry less immediate risk. Option A (lack of regular review) can delay incident detection but does not prevent the existence of footage that can be analyzed later. Option B (deletion after one year) aligns with common data retention policies balancing privacy and storage limitations; retaining footage for one year is generally adequate for most audits and investigations. Option D (absence of cameras in break rooms) is less critical since break rooms are typically non-sensitive areas, and placing cameras there might even infringe on privacy rights.

Therefore, continuous 24/7 recording is essential to ensure comprehensive security coverage and auditability in a data center. From an IS auditor’s perspective, failing to have uninterrupted CCTV recording presents the highest security risk because it compromises the core purpose of surveillance—to detect, deter, and document security incidents effectively.

Question 6:

When auditing a proposed purchase of new computer hardware, what should be the IS auditor’s main focus?

A. Confirming a clear business justification exists.
B. Ensuring the hardware complies with security standards.
C. Verifying an audit trail will be available for the hardware.
D. Confirming the implementation plan satisfies user requirements.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

When an IS auditor assesses a proposed acquisition of new computer hardware, their primary responsibility is to determine whether the purchase is justified from a business standpoint. This means confirming that a clear and well-documented business case supports the investment (Option A).

A business case demonstrates why the hardware is needed, what problems it will solve, or how it will enhance operational efficiency or capabilities. It should include a cost-benefit analysis, risk evaluation, alignment with organizational goals, and expected returns. Without this foundation, hardware procurement risks becoming a costly or misaligned investment, leading to wasted resources or failure to support business objectives.

While other factors are important, they typically come into play after the business justification is established. For instance, security compliance (Option B) is essential but usually assessed later in procurement or deployment to ensure the hardware does not introduce vulnerabilities. Similarly, having an audit trail (Option C) is vital for ongoing monitoring and accountability but is more relevant post-deployment, once the hardware is operational. Finally, ensuring the implementation plan meets user requirements (Option D) relates to successful rollout and adoption, which happens after the decision to purchase.

By focusing first on the business case, the auditor ensures that the hardware acquisition is purposeful, strategic, and financially sound. This early-stage scrutiny helps prevent unnecessary or ill-timed investments and sets a solid foundation for subsequent evaluation of security, operational controls, and deployment plans. Thus, confirming the existence of a clear business case is the IS auditor’s foremost concern when reviewing new hardware acquisitions.

Question 7:

What must the receiver do to verify the integrity of a received hashed message?

A. Use the sender’s hashing algorithm to generate a binary copy of the file.
B. Use a different hashing algorithm than the sender to produce a numerical hash of the file.
C. Use a different hashing algorithm than the sender to generate a binary copy of the file.
D. Use the same hashing algorithm as the sender to produce a numerical hash of the file.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Verifying message integrity through hashing is a crucial step in ensuring that the data received has not been altered during transmission. Hashing transforms any input—be it a message or file—into a fixed-size string of characters, often represented as a hexadecimal number, called a hash value or digest.

The process begins with the sender applying a specific hashing algorithm (for example, SHA-256) to the original message, producing a unique numerical hash. This hash, along with the original message, is sent to the receiver.

To confirm integrity, the receiver must run the exact same hashing algorithm on the received message. This produces a numerical hash value that is then compared against the hash sent by the sender. If both hash values match, it confirms the message remains unchanged. Any discrepancy indicates tampering or corruption.

Looking at the answer options:

• Option A is partially correct in using the same algorithm, but hashing doesn’t create a binary replica of the file; it generates a fixed-length numeric hash. Thus, the “binary copy” terminology is incorrect.

• Option B suggests using a different hashing algorithm, which is problematic because different algorithms yield completely different outputs even from identical inputs, making comparisons invalid.

• Option C combines the two mistakes of using a different algorithm and producing a binary image, so it is also incorrect.

• Option D correctly states that the receiver must apply the same hashing algorithm to produce a numerical hash for accurate comparison.

In summary, to verify message integrity, the receiver must use the same hashing algorithm as the sender to generate a numerical hash of the received message and compare it with the sender’s hash. This process is fundamental to detecting unauthorized changes or corruption in transmitted data.

Question 8:

Which deployment method is best suited to minimize business interruptions during the rollout of a new system supporting a critical month-end process?

A. Cutover
B. Phased
C. Pilot
D. Parallel

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Deploying a new system to support vital processes like month-end financial closing requires an implementation strategy that minimizes downtime and risk. The Parallel deployment method is the most effective in achieving these goals because it allows both the legacy system and the new system to operate simultaneously.

Running both systems in tandem enables business continuity without halting operations. During this phase, outputs from the new system can be compared directly to the legacy system to verify accuracy and functionality. If any issues arise, the business can continue relying on the legacy system without interruption, ensuring critical deadlines are met.

Examining other strategies:

• The Cutover or “big bang” approach involves switching off the old system and activating the new one all at once. While fast, this method carries significant risk. Any failures in the new system can lead to extended downtime and operational disruption, which is particularly dangerous during sensitive periods like month-end.

• A Phased rollout introduces the new system gradually—by departments or features. This approach reduces risk by limiting exposure but may not minimize downtime effectively for an end-to-end process like month-end closing. It also complicates workflow as parts of the process may run on different systems simultaneously.

• The Pilot method tests the new system on a small user group before full deployment. While it aids in identifying issues early, it doesn’t reduce downtime across the entire organization since the broader user base still relies on the old system until full adoption.

In conclusion, the Parallel method offers the safest path to maintain continuous operations during deployment of a critical, time-sensitive system. It enables thorough validation, reduces risk of downtime, and ensures business processes like month-end closing are uninterrupted and reliable.

Question 9:

When dealing with a newly discovered zero-day vulnerability, what should be the initial step in managing its potential effects?

A. Estimating the possible damage it could cause
B. Identifying which assets are vulnerable
C. Assessing how likely an attack is to occur
D. Evaluating the impact of the vulnerability

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

When a zero-day vulnerability is identified, it means that a security flaw exists with no available patch and could be actively exploited. In such critical scenarios, an organized response is crucial to mitigate risk effectively. The very first step must be to identify which assets within the organization are vulnerable.

This initial focus on identifying vulnerable assets is essential because without knowing what systems, applications, or endpoints could be affected, you cannot plan or prioritize your response. Asset inventory management and vulnerability scanning tools help determine what software versions or configurations exist in your environment and whether they are exposed to the zero-day flaw. Only after this identification can subsequent steps such as damage estimation and impact analysis be meaningful and accurate.

Other options, while important, come later in the process:

• Estimating potential damage (Option A) depends on understanding what is vulnerable and how critical those assets are to business operations. Without this knowledge, damage estimation lacks context and can be speculative.

• Evaluating the likelihood of an attack (Option C) is relevant but, in the case of zero-days—especially if the exploit is public or active—the assumption is often that the likelihood is high. Moreover, likelihood assessment requires knowing the vulnerable targets first.

• Assessing the impact (Option D) also depends on the inventory of vulnerable assets and their role in business continuity. It’s a detailed risk evaluation that follows asset identification.

In summary, identifying vulnerable assets sets the foundation for all other risk management activities. It enables organizations to scope the threat accurately, prioritize remediation efforts, and develop appropriate mitigation strategies, making it the critical first step in managing zero-day vulnerabilities.

Question 10:

Which testing method is best suited to verify that an application meets its functional and performance specifications?

A. Pilot testing
B. System testing
C. Integration testing
D. Unit testing

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

To confirm that an application performs as intended according to its specifications, system testing is the most comprehensive and appropriate testing phase. System testing is performed on the fully integrated application to validate that all components work together seamlessly and meet the functional, performance, security, and usability requirements laid out in the design.

System testing examines the entire application as a whole within its target environment, verifying both functional requirements (what the application should do) and non-functional requirements (how well it should perform). This end-to-end testing phase ensures that the software meets the expectations of stakeholders and behaves as specified before it moves to production.

Reviewing the other options clarifies why they are less suitable for this purpose:

• Pilot testing (Option A) involves releasing the application to a small group of end-users in a live environment to gather feedback on usability and user experience. While valuable for real-world validation, it is not a systematic method to confirm adherence to technical requirements.

• Integration testing (Option C) tests the interaction between different modules or components, ensuring they communicate and work together properly. However, it focuses on interfaces and data flow rather than the entire application’s compliance with specifications.

• Unit testing (Option D) examines individual code units or functions in isolation, typically by developers. It ensures that discrete parts work correctly but does not validate the complete application or its fulfillment of overall requirements.

Therefore, system testing is the final and best method to comprehensively validate that the application behaves as expected according to the full set of specifications before release.