Fortinet NSE7_EFW-7.0 Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions

Question 1:

What three prerequisites must be met for two FortiGate devices to successfully establish an OSPF adjacency? (Select three.)

A. The OSPF network types configured on the interfaces must be identical
B. The OSPF router IDs must be distinct from one another
C. The OSPF interface priority values must be unique
D. The authentication configurations on both devices must match
E. The OSPF link costs need to be the same

Correct Answer: A, B, D

Explanation:

To successfully establish an OSPF adjacency between two FortiGate devices, certain conditions must be satisfied to ensure proper communication and synchronization of routing information. The three essential requirements are: matching OSPF interface network types (A), unique router IDs (B), and identical authentication settings (D).

First, the OSPF interface network types must match because OSPF treats network types such as broadcast, point-to-point, or non-broadcast differently. If one FortiGate interface is configured as broadcast and the other as point-to-point, adjacency formation will fail due to protocol mismatch.

Second, each router in an OSPF domain must have a unique router ID, which acts as a unique identifier. If two devices share the same router ID, they cannot form an adjacency because the OSPF process depends on router ID uniqueness to differentiate peers.

Third, authentication parameters must be identical if authentication is enabled. OSPF uses authentication to secure routing exchanges, and mismatched passwords or authentication types will prevent adjacency formation as devices reject unauthorized peers.

Options C and E are not prerequisites for adjacency. Interface priority (C) influences Designated Router elections but doesn’t have to be unique; multiple devices can share the same priority without affecting adjacency formation. Link costs (E) are metrics used for route calculation and can differ between devices without preventing adjacency.

In summary, for two FortiGate devices to establish OSPF adjacency, they must share the same interface network type, have unique router IDs, and matching authentication configurations. These criteria ensure that both devices recognize and trust each other, enabling stable OSPF neighbor relationships and proper routing exchanges.

Question 2:

If an administrator cannot access the remote gateway, which modification to the local gateway’s configuration is most likely to fix a phase 1 negotiation failure based on debug output?

A. Change the IKE version to 2 in the phase 1 settings
B. Add AES128-SHA128 to the phase 1 proposal’s encryption algorithms
C. Include AESCBC-SHA2 in the phase 1 proposal’s encryption algorithms
D. Add AES256-SHA256 to the phase 1 proposal’s encryption algorithms

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Phase 1 negotiation in IPsec VPNs involves establishing a secure channel between two gateways by agreeing on encryption and authentication algorithms. When the administrator cannot access or modify the remote gateway, resolving phase 1 failures depends on aligning the local gateway’s configuration with what the remote gateway supports.

The most practical solution here is Option B — adding AES128-SHA128 to the phase 1 proposal algorithms. AES128 (Advanced Encryption Standard with 128-bit keys) combined with SHA128 (a hashing algorithm for integrity) is a widely supported, standardized choice for phase 1 encryption and authentication. It is commonly used across many devices and vendors, increasing compatibility chances.

Option A proposes changing the IKE version to 2. While IKEv2 is a newer, more efficient protocol, simply switching the version may not resolve the issue if the remote gateway only supports IKEv1 or a specific version mismatch exists. Without remote access, this change might break compatibility.

Option C suggests adding AESCBC-SHA2, which may be a valid but less common or vendor-specific algorithm. There is no guarantee the remote gateway supports this combination, which may perpetuate the negotiation failure.

Option D recommends AES256-SHA256, a stronger but less universally supported option. If the remote gateway does not support this higher encryption strength or the exact algorithm, negotiation will still fail.

Therefore, selecting AES128-SHA128 as a standard and broadly compatible phase 1 proposal offers the highest likelihood of successful negotiation, especially when the remote side cannot be altered. This approach aligns with best practices to maximize interoperability in VPN setups.

Question 3:

Which configuration adjustment will cause the cache statistics section to show values greater than zero?

A. Configure server-type rating under system central-management
B. Enable webfilter-cache under system fortiguard
C. Disable webfilter-force-off under system fortiguard
D. Set ngfw-mode to policy-based under system settings

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Cache statistics in FortiGate devices represent data on the usage and effectiveness of cached content, primarily aimed at improving web filtering performance. These statistics reflect how often cached web filter results are used, which helps reduce latency and decrease bandwidth consumption by avoiding repeated requests to FortiGuard servers.

Option A involves setting the server-type rating within the central management configuration. This setting is related to how FortiGate interacts with a centralized management platform (such as FortiManager) and does not affect caching of web filtering data. Therefore, enabling this will not result in any change in cache statistics, and they will likely remain at zero.

Option B is the correct answer because enabling the webfilter-cache directly activates local caching of web filtering results, such as URL categorizations. When this caching is active, frequently accessed URLs are stored locally on the FortiGate device, allowing subsequent requests to be served from the cache rather than querying FortiGuard every time. This leads to a noticeable increase in cache usage and thus non-zero statistics in the cache section, reflecting improved efficiency and faster response times.

Option C relates to the webfilter-force-off setting, which controls whether web filtering is forcibly disabled for specific traffic. Disabling the force-off feature ensures web filtering remains active but does not affect whether caching occurs. As such, cache statistics would not be impacted by this setting.

Option D concerns the next-generation firewall (NGFW) mode configuration, switching it to policy-based mode. While this changes how firewall policies are applied, it does not influence the caching mechanism for web filtering, so cache statistics remain unaffected.

In summary, only enabling webfilter-cache under the FortiGuard configuration causes cache statistics to register activity by storing and reusing web filtering data locally, making B the accurate choice.

Question 4:

If the priority value of route ID 2 changes from 10 to 0, what is the expected behavior of traffic related to existing user sessions?

A. The session stays active, and traffic now flows through both port1 and port2.
B. The session remains active, with traffic egressing only through port2.
C. The session is removed, requiring the client to initiate a new session.
D. The session remains active, with traffic egressing only through port1.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

In FortiGate routing, the priority value determines which route is favored when multiple paths exist for the same destination. Lower priority numbers represent higher preference. When the priority of a route changes significantly, such as from 10 (higher priority number) to 0 (lowest priority), the routing table is updated to reflect this new preference. This change impacts how existing sessions are handled because sessions are established based on the original routing decision.

Option A suggests the session remains in the session table while traffic flows through two ports simultaneously. This is inaccurate because FortiGate does not split session traffic between two different egress interfaces due to route priority changes. Such behavior would require specific load balancing or link aggregation configurations, which are unrelated here.

Option B states the session remains and traffic flows only via port2. While the new preferred route may indeed be through port2, an existing session’s route cannot simply change dynamically without session reestablishment. FortiGate must remove the current session for routing recalculations, making this option incorrect.

Option D is similar to B, implying the session persists with traffic via port1. Since the route priority is lowered to zero (making it the most preferred), continuing traffic through port1 contradicts the updated routing rules, and the session would not remain valid.

Option C correctly describes that the session will be deleted. Changing route priority invalidates the current routing path, so existing sessions relying on the old route are removed. Consequently, clients must establish new sessions that adhere to the updated routing decisions. This ensures traffic flows according to the new route preferences, maintaining network stability and correct routing behavior.

Therefore, C is the correct answer, reflecting FortiGate’s handling of routing priority changes and session state management.

Question 5:

An administrator wants to test failover between two service provider connections for an active session. What two configuration changes should be made to immediately switch the session to the other interface? (Select two.)

A. Enable set snat-route-change.
B. Set the static route priority for port2 to 5.
C. Set the static route priority for port1 to 11.
D. Disable snat-route-change by unsetting it.

Correct Answer: A, B

Explanation:

When testing session failover between two service provider links, the goal is to force an active session to immediately switch from one interface to another. This ensures failover mechanisms work correctly and traffic can seamlessly move without disruption.

The first necessary step is to enable set snat-route-change (Option A). This setting is critical because it instructs the system to dynamically change the Source Network Address Translation (SNAT) routing when it detects a path change or failure. Without enabling this, the session will continue to use the original interface even if a failover condition exists. Enabling this parameter ensures the system reacts immediately to route changes by shifting ongoing sessions accordingly.

The second step involves adjusting route priorities. Static routes have priorities where lower numbers indicate higher priority. By setting the priority of the static route on port2 to 5 (Option B), the system favors this route over others with higher priority numbers. This manipulation encourages sessions to fail over from port1 to port2 by making port2 the preferred route.

Other options do not directly enforce immediate failover:

• Setting port1’s priority to 11 (Option C) lowers its priority but does not alone trigger an immediate failover, since the SNAT route-change setting must be enabled to make the session follow route updates dynamically.

• Disabling or unsetting snat-route-change (Option D) reverts to default behavior, which prevents automatic session switching during route changes, thereby defeating the failover test.

In summary, to force an active session to switch interfaces immediately during failover testing, enabling snat-route-change and lowering the priority of the target interface’s static route are essential actions.

Question 6:

Which two capabilities are offered by automation stitches in FortiGate devices? (Select two.)

A. Automation stitches can be set up on any FortiGate device within a Security Fabric.
B. When configured to run sequentially, automation stitches can use output parameters from one action as input for the next.
C. Automation stitches can execute diagnostic commands and email the results if CPU or memory usage passes specified limits.
D. Automation stitches running actions in parallel can be configured to add specific delays between each action.

Correct Answer: B, C

Explanation:

Automation stitches are powerful features in FortiGate devices designed to automate routine or critical tasks in network security management. They allow multiple actions to be triggered by specific events or conditions, enhancing operational efficiency and responsiveness.

One of the key functionalities (Option B) is that when automation stitches are configured to execute actions sequentially, the output from a previous action can be used as input for the subsequent one. This ability to chain actions dynamically enables complex workflows—for example, gathering diagnostic information in one step and using those results to customize alerts or adjust settings in the next step. This flexibility makes automation stitches highly adaptive to real-time conditions.

Another important feature (Option C) is their capability to automatically run diagnostic commands (like checking CPU or memory usage) when thresholds are exceeded. Once diagnostics are collected, the results can be attached to email notifications sent to administrators. This helps in proactive monitoring and quick issue identification, reducing downtime or performance degradation.

Option A is partially true—automation stitches are indeed used in FortiGate devices and Security Fabric environments—but they can also be configured on standalone FortiGate units, so this option is not fully descriptive of their core functions.

Option D is incorrect because, although stitches can execute actions in parallel, inserting deliberate delays between parallel actions is not a standard feature. Delays are more relevant to sequential execution flows.

In conclusion, automation stitches improve FortiGate automation by enabling parameterized sequential actions and automated diagnostics with email alerts, greatly aiding network administrators in managing system health and security proactively.

Question 7:

Referring to the provided output, which two statements are accurate? (Select two.)

A. The tunnel’s npu_flag is set to 03.
B. Varying SPI values occur because auto-negotiation is disabled for phase 2 selectors.
C. Anti-replay protection is enabled.
D. The tunnel’s npu_flag is set to 02.

Correct Answers: C and either A or D (depending on actual output)

Explanation:

To determine the correct statements, we need to carefully analyze the given output related to the VPN tunnel configuration, focusing on three main areas: the npu_flag setting, SPI values, and anti-replay status.

The npu_flag refers to the Network Processing Unit (NPU) offloading state, indicating whether encryption and decryption tasks are handled by specialized hardware (NPU) or by software on the CPU. The flag value can vary, with common values being 02 or 03, depending on hardware acceleration being enabled or disabled for that tunnel. Since only one of these can be correct, the output must be consulted to identify the actual npu_flag.

The Security Parameter Index (SPI) is a unique identifier for security associations in IPsec tunnels. When auto-negotiation of phase 2 selectors (which defines how security parameters like encryption algorithms and keys are agreed upon) is disabled, the SPI values may differ for each direction or session because parameters are manually set rather than dynamically negotiated. If the output indicates this, the statement about different SPI values is valid.

Anti-replay is a security feature that prevents replay attacks, where an attacker intercepts and retransmits packets to disrupt communications. If the output explicitly confirms anti-replay is enabled, this statement is also accurate.

In practice, the correct answers usually include the anti-replay setting (option C) and one npu_flag value (either A or D). The statement about SPI differences due to auto-negotiation being disabled (option B) could be true if the configuration or output shows that phase 2 selectors are fixed and not auto-negotiated.

In summary, by closely reviewing the output, one can confirm that anti-replay is enabled and identify the correct npu_flag value, making those two the most likely correct statements.

Question 8:

Which statement best describes FortiGate’s behavior concerning this session?

A. FortiGate redirected the user to a captive portal for authentication to enable the correct policy application.
B. FortiGate forwarded the session without conducting any inspection.
C. FortiGate is inspecting the session’s security profiles using its CPU.
D. FortiGate only applied Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) inspection to this session.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Understanding how FortiGate manages sessions is key to correctly interpreting its behavior in various scenarios. FortiGate is a comprehensive security platform designed to apply multiple layers of inspection and policy enforcement on network traffic.

Option A describes a situation where FortiGate redirects a client to a captive portal for authentication. This typically happens when FortiGate cannot immediately match the session to an existing security policy or when authentication is required before allowing further access. Redirecting users to a captive portal ensures that only authorized users can continue, enabling FortiGate to apply the appropriate policies once the user is authenticated. This method is widely used in environments such as guest Wi-Fi or controlled access networks to enforce security policies based on user identity.

Option B, stating that FortiGate forwards the session without any inspection, is generally incorrect because FortiGate’s core function is to inspect and enforce security rules. Unless explicitly configured to bypass inspection (for example, in some VPN or trusted traffic policies), the device will analyze traffic for threats and compliance.

Option C suggests that security profile inspection is done by the CPU alone, but this is not entirely accurate. FortiGate typically offloads many security tasks to its Security Processing Unit (SPU), a dedicated hardware accelerator designed to efficiently handle intensive security operations such as antivirus scanning, web filtering, and intrusion prevention, reducing CPU load and improving performance.

Option D claims that only IPS inspection was applied, which is unusual. FortiGate typically runs multiple inspections (firewall, antivirus, application control, IPS) unless configured otherwise.

Therefore, the correct answer is A because redirecting users to a captive portal for authentication is a common FortiGate behavior to ensure secure access and proper policy enforcement based on authenticated identity.

Question 9:

An administrator has set up two separate VPNs for two distinct user groups. However, users belonging to the Users-2 group are unable to connect because FortiGate does not associate them with the correct VPN tunnel. 

What two adjustments should the administrator make to resolve this issue? (Select two.)

A. Use different pre-shared keys for each VPN.
B. Enable XAuth on both VPNs.
C. Configure specific peer IDs for both VPNs.
D. Switch both VPNs to aggressive mode.

Correct Answers: B, C

Explanation:

When deploying multiple VPNs for different user groups on FortiGate, it’s critical to ensure that the device correctly associates users with the appropriate VPN tunnel. In this scenario, the administrator notices that the Users-2 group cannot connect because FortiGate is failing to match this group to its designated VPN. Two key changes are needed to resolve this.

Enabling XAuth (Extended Authentication) on both VPNs (Option B) is essential because XAuth allows the FortiGate to perform an additional layer of user authentication beyond the standard IKE phase 1 and phase 2 negotiations. This extra step lets the firewall distinguish between user groups based on credentials, helping FortiGate to accurately match users to their correct VPN tunnels. Without XAuth enabled, users might not be uniquely identified, causing the VPN matching failure experienced by Users-2.

Setting up specific peer IDs on both VPNs (Option C) is also crucial. Peer IDs act as unique identifiers for VPN endpoints during negotiation. When multiple VPNs exist, these IDs ensure FortiGate knows exactly which tunnel a user should connect to. Without unique peer IDs, FortiGate might confuse tunnels or default to one, leaving the other group unable to connect. Proper peer ID configuration effectively resolves ambiguity in multi-VPN environments.

The other options are less relevant:

• Using different pre-shared keys (Option A) is good security practice but unlikely to solve the VPN matching issue, which centers on identification and authentication rather than encryption keys.

• Switching to aggressive mode (Option D) affects the speed and process of the VPN negotiation but does not address how FortiGate matches users or groups to the correct tunnel.

In summary, enabling XAuth and assigning unique peer IDs will allow FortiGate to correctly identify and authenticate the Users-2 group for their VPN connection, resolving the connection failure.

Question 10:

A FortiGate device is configured to use explicit proxy mode for HTTP traffic inspection. During troubleshooting, users report some web pages are not loading correctly through the proxy. 

Which configuration step should the administrator verify or adjust to resolve this issue?

A. Ensure the explicit proxy policy is set with “Allow” action for the affected users.
B. Verify that the HTTP Content Inspection profile is applied to the explicit proxy policy.
C. Check if SSL/SSH inspection is enabled on the explicit proxy policy for HTTPS traffic.
D. Confirm the explicit proxy port is open and correctly configured on the FortiGate interface.

Explanation:

Explicit proxy mode on a FortiGate allows the device to intercept and inspect HTTP traffic by having clients explicitly configure their browser or device to send traffic to the FortiGate proxy port (default 8080). This setup enables granular content inspection, filtering, and logging.

When users experience web page loading problems, the administrator should consider multiple factors, but the most critical step to verify is that the explicit proxy port is correctly configured and open on the FortiGate interface—Option D.

If the proxy port (commonly 8080) is not open or blocked by a firewall policy or misconfigured on the FortiGate interface, client browsers will fail to establish a connection through the proxy, causing web pages to fail loading. Ensuring this port is reachable and correctly listening on the FortiGate is essential for proxy functionality.

Option A is important but less likely the root cause if users can connect but pages don’t load properly. The proxy policy must indeed permit traffic, but this is usually verified early in troubleshooting.

Option B is about applying content inspection profiles, which affects filtering and scanning but generally would not cause complete page load failures unless strict filters block content.

Option C deals with SSL/SSH inspection for HTTPS traffic. While important for decrypting HTTPS for inspection, if HTTP (port 80) pages fail to load, SSL inspection settings won’t affect the connection.

In summary, explicit proxy relies on clients connecting through a defined port. If that port is misconfigured or blocked, users will be unable to access web resources. Checking and correcting the explicit proxy port configuration on FortiGate interfaces and associated firewall policies is a critical step to resolve HTTP proxy issues in FortiGate’s explicit proxy mode.