Palo Alto Networks PCCSE Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions

Question 1:

In a default installation of Console, where should a customer navigate to view the compliance checks that have triggered alerts by default?

A. Monitor > Compliance
B. Defend > Compliance
C. Manage > Compliance
D. Custom > Compliance

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

When working with Console in its default configuration, identifying which compliance checks are alerting requires knowing the right navigation path. Console typically organizes its features into logical sections such as monitoring, managing, defending, and customization, each targeting specific functionalities.

The Monitor section is designed primarily for real-time observation and status tracking of the environment. This includes displaying alerts, notifications, and compliance issues as they happen. Within this area, the Compliance subsection is where default compliance checks and alerts can be reviewed, making it the most suitable place for a customer wanting to see active compliance alerts without any customization or policy management.

Choosing Option A: Monitor > Compliance aligns with this design philosophy. It gives users immediate insight into compliance alerts generated by the system, reflecting the default policies applied during installation.

Option B: Defend > Compliance generally relates to active defense mechanisms or protective actions rather than passive monitoring of compliance alerts. This section would be more about configuring security controls than reviewing alert statuses, so it’s less appropriate for viewing existing compliance alerts.

Option C: Manage > Compliance is intended for policy administration and configuration tasks, such as setting compliance parameters, editing rules, or adjusting policy details. It’s not primarily focused on alert monitoring, which reduces its suitability for identifying default compliance alerts.

Option D: Custom > Compliance is typically reserved for user-defined compliance rules and alerts, not the out-of-the-box defaults. Since the question focuses on default compliance alerts, this section wouldn’t display the relevant information.

In summary, the Monitor > Compliance pathway is the correct choice because it is purpose-built for viewing the compliance alerts that Console generates by default, enabling customers to track and address issues in real time.

Question 2:

The development team wants the Continuous Integration (CI) pipeline to fail automatically if an image contains a specific CVE. 

How should the team configure this behavior within their security tools or policies?

A. Configure the CVE exception in Jenkins or twistcli
B. Set the CVE exception within Defender during the scan
C. Use a special "magic string" in Console to set the CVE exception
D. Define the specific CVE exception in the Console’s CI police

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

In modern CI/CD pipelines, security is often enforced by integrating vulnerability scanning tools that assess container images or software builds for known issues such as Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVEs). When a particular CVE is critical, teams want the pipeline to automatically fail if that CVE appears, preventing vulnerable code from progressing.

The most effective way to enforce this is by configuring a security policy that explicitly flags the specified CVE as a failure condition. This policy enforcement is best done at the centralized policy level that integrates directly with the CI pipeline.

Option D: Define the specific CVE exception in the Console’s CI policy is the correct approach because the Console manages policies that govern CI job outcomes based on scan results. By specifying the CVE in the CI policy, the development team ensures that any image containing that vulnerability causes the job to fail, automating enforcement consistently across builds. This integration allows the pipeline to respond immediately to security issues without manual checks.

Option A: Configure the CVE exception in Jenkins or twistcli refers to adding exceptions or rules directly in the CI tool (Jenkins) or the CLI scanning tool (twistcli). While these tools can scan and report vulnerabilities, they generally do not control policy enforcement logic around CI job failures. Jenkins relies on the results from scanners and does not natively enforce CVE-based failures unless configured externally, making this a less centralized and reliable method.

Option B: Set the CVE exception within Defender during scanning focuses on the scanning tool itself. Defender scans and detects vulnerabilities, but policy enforcement to fail CI jobs usually happens at a higher orchestration level, like Console. Defender’s configuration alone doesn’t control CI pipeline behavior directly.

Option C: Use a “magic string” in Console suggests a more complex or less standard method and is not the documented or typical way to enforce CVE-based job failures.

Therefore, setting the CVE exception within the Console’s CI policy (Option D) offers the most straightforward, maintainable, and automated approach to ensuring the pipeline fails when specific vulnerabilities are detected.

Question 3:

Which three types of classifications are included in the Data Security module? (Select three.)

A. Personally identifiable information
B. Malicious IP
C. Compliance standard
D. Financial information
E. Malware

Correct Answer: A, C, and D

Explanation:

The Data Security module is designed to categorize various types of sensitive and regulated data to help organizations protect their most critical information assets. Understanding the classifications available is essential for managing data privacy, compliance, and security policies effectively.

One key classification is Personally Identifiable Information (PII) (Option A). PII includes data elements that can identify an individual, such as names, social security numbers, addresses, and phone numbers. Because PII is subject to stringent privacy regulations like GDPR (Europe), HIPAA (healthcare), and CCPA (California), it requires special handling and protection. Therefore, the Data Security module prioritizes PII as a fundamental classification.

Another important classification is Compliance standard (Option C). This category groups data according to the specific legal and regulatory frameworks that govern its use and protection. For example, payment card data must comply with PCI-DSS standards, healthcare data is regulated under HIPAA, and personal data in the EU falls under GDPR. Classifying data based on compliance requirements ensures that organizations apply the correct controls to meet these standards.

Financial information (Option D) is also a critical classification within the Data Security module. It includes data related to monetary transactions, bank accounts, credit card numbers, and other financial records. Financial data is highly sensitive and frequently targeted by cybercriminals, so it is protected by strict industry regulations such as PCI-DSS.

On the other hand, Malicious IPs (Option B) refer to external network addresses linked to attacks or unauthorized activity. While vital for threat intelligence and monitoring, malicious IPs are not classified as data types within the Data Security module. Similarly, Malware (Option E) relates to harmful software threats and is generally handled by threat detection systems rather than data classification.

In summary, the Data Security module focuses on classifying sensitive data categories like Personally Identifiable Information, Compliance standards, and Financial information, making Options A, C, and D the correct answers.

Question 4:

A customer wants any container running the image topSecret:latest to be terminated if a process named ransomWare starts. 

How should the administrator configure Prisma Cloud Compute to enforce this?

A. Set the container model to manual relearn and configure the default runtime rule to block for process protection.
B. Set the container model to relearn and configure the default runtime rule to prevent for process protection.
C. Create a new runtime policy targeting the specific container name, add ransomWare to the denied processes list, and set the action to "prevent".
D. Use the "copy into rule" feature for the container, add ransomWare to the denied processes list, and set the action to "block".

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

To fulfill the customer's requirement of terminating any container running the image topSecret:latest whenever the process ransomWare executes, the best practice is to configure a targeted runtime policy within Prisma Cloud Compute. This policy must specifically detect the malicious process within the designated container and act immediately to halt it.

Option C offers the ideal solution by allowing the administrator to create a custom runtime policy targeted at the container image name (topSecret:latest). This policy includes ransomWare in the denied processes list, and the enforcement action is set to "prevent". This means that as soon as the process is detected, Prisma Cloud will actively stop it and terminate the container, meeting the exact requirement of the customer.

Option A suggests using a manual relearn model and setting the default runtime rule to block. This approach is less efficient because manual relearning is time-consuming, and blocking the default runtime process globally lacks the specificity needed to target only containers running topSecret:latest.

Option B involves setting the container model to relearn and applying a default prevent rule, but it does not allow targeting specific containers or processes precisely. This broad approach might block unwanted activity but lacks the granularity required here.

Option D proposes using "copy into rule" and blocking the ransomWare process. However, the "copy into rule" function is less straightforward and not the recommended method for defining highly specific runtime policies.

Therefore, by crafting a dedicated runtime policy as described in Option C, the administrator ensures Prisma Cloud Compute will effectively monitor for the ransomWare process in the specified container image and immediately terminate it, providing precise and reliable security enforcement.

Question 5:

Which statement accurately describes the correct process for obtaining Prisma Cloud Compute Edition Console images?

A. Use basic authentication by logging into registry.paloaltonetworks.com with docker login, then pull the Prisma Cloud Console images.
B. Use basic authentication by logging into registry.twistlock.com with docker login, then pull the Prisma Cloud Console images.
C. Use URL-based authentication by accessing registry-url-auth.twistlock.com and authenticating with a user certificate, then pull the Prisma Cloud Console images.
D. Use URL-based authentication by accessing registry-auth.twistlock.com and authenticating with a user certificate, then pull the Prisma Cloud Console images.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Prisma Cloud Compute Edition, formerly known as Twistlock, is a comprehensive security platform designed to safeguard containerized environments, serverless applications, and cloud infrastructures. An essential step in deploying Prisma Cloud involves obtaining the Console images, which can be pulled from a secure container image registry.

Option A correctly describes the standard procedure. The official registry for Prisma Cloud images is registry.paloaltonetworks.com. Users authenticate using Docker’s basic authentication mechanism via docker login, providing their credentials to gain access. Once authenticated, the Prisma Cloud Console images are pulled using the docker pull command. This approach aligns with Palo Alto Networks' updated registry hosting and authentication practices.

Option B is outdated because registry.twistlock.com was used in the past but has since been deprecated. Prisma Cloud no longer hosts images at this URL, so attempting to authenticate and pull images from there will fail.

Options C and D describe URL-based authentication methods using user certificates and reference URLs that do not correspond with the current official Prisma Cloud registries. These methods are not supported or recommended for retrieving Prisma Cloud Console images, and the URLs mentioned are not valid endpoints for the official image repositories.

In summary, the correct and supported method to retrieve Prisma Cloud Compute Edition Console images is by using basic authentication against registry.paloaltonetworks.com, making option A the correct choice.

Question 6:

Which two statements correctly describe the differences between build and run configuration policies? (Choose two.)

A. Run and Network policies are part of the configuration policy set.
B. Build and Audit Events policies are included in the configuration policy set.
C. Run policies monitor deployed cloud resources to detect potential runtime issues.
D. Build policies check for security misconfigurations in Infrastructure as Code (IaC) templates before deployment to prevent vulnerabilities in production.
E. Run policies track network activities and check for issues during runtime.

Correct Answers: C, D

Explanation:

Understanding the distinction between build and run configuration policies is fundamental to effectively securing cloud environments throughout their lifecycle.

Option C accurately states that run policies focus on the post-deployment phase. These policies continuously monitor active cloud resources to detect misconfigurations, security vulnerabilities, or performance problems while the resources are running. By doing so, run policies help maintain compliance and security after the infrastructure has been provisioned, ensuring that any deviations from desired states are caught and remediated in real-time.

Option D correctly describes build policies, which operate during the pre-deployment stage. They analyze Infrastructure as Code (IaC) templates—such as Terraform or AWS CloudFormation files—to identify security risks and misconfigurations before the resources are deployed. This proactive approach prevents vulnerabilities from entering production, enhancing overall cloud security posture.

The other options contain inaccuracies. Option A wrongly groups run and network policies together under configuration policies, which is incorrect since network policies are generally treated separately, focusing exclusively on monitoring network traffic rather than deployment or configuration stages. Option B confuses build policies with audit event policies; audit event policies monitor logs and activities rather than infrastructure definitions. Option E misattributes network activity monitoring to run policies broadly, whereas network monitoring is specifically handled by network policies.

In conclusion, the critical difference lies in timing and scope: build policies prevent misconfigurations before deployment, and run policies detect and respond to issues during resource operation, making C and D the correct statements.

Question 7:

If the security team decides to use the "Relearn" option on this image after concluding that the detected anomalies were false positives, what will happen to the machine learning model?

A. The model is deleted, and Defender relearns for a fixed period of 24 hours.
B. The detected anomalies are automatically incorporated into the model.
C. The model is erased and reset to its initial learning state.
D. The model is kept, and new behaviors detected during the relearning phase are added to it.

Answer: C

Explanation:

When the security team chooses to "Relearn" on an image in the context of anomaly detection, the system essentially discards the current machine learning model and starts the learning process from scratch. This means the model no longer retains any previous knowledge, including any false positives or misclassifications that were part of the earlier training. This reset helps to ensure that errors in the model’s prior learning do not persist and negatively affect detection accuracy.

The correct answer is C because “Relearn” deletes the existing model and returns it to the initial untrained state. From there, the system begins collecting data anew to build a fresh model based on current, accurate observations of system behavior. This is particularly useful when the security team has identified false positives in the previous model and wants to eliminate their influence.

Option A is incorrect because, although Relearn deletes the model, there is no strict 24-hour learning window imposed; the system learns continuously as it receives new data rather than for a fixed time. Option B is wrong because during relearning, previously detected anomalies, especially false positives, are not retained or automatically added—in fact, they are removed. Option D is also incorrect since the relearn action discards the old model instead of retaining it and simply adding new behaviors.

In summary, choosing "Relearn" means the system wipes out the current machine learning model and restarts its learning process from the beginning, allowing the security infrastructure to improve its accuracy by learning only from relevant, updated behavioral data.

Question 8:

A customer wants to prevent security alerts from being triggered by network traffic originating from trusted internal IP addresses. 

Which configuration option should be used to achieve this?

A. Trusted Login IP Addresses
B. Anomaly Trusted List
C. Trusted Alert IP Addresses
D. Enterprise Alert Disposition

Answer: C

Explanation:

When a customer requests that alerts not be generated for network traffic coming from trusted internal sources, the system must be configured to recognize and exclude such traffic from triggering alarms. This is essential to reduce noise and focus alerting efforts on genuinely suspicious activity.

Option C, Trusted Alert IP Addresses, is the most suitable choice because it specifically allows the administrator to define IP addresses or IP ranges that are considered trusted within the alerting system. When traffic originates from these trusted addresses, the system suppresses alerts, effectively preventing unnecessary alarms for known, safe internal traffic. This setting directly addresses the customer’s requirement.

Option A, Trusted Login IP Addresses, is related to authenticating user logins and does not affect alert generation based on network traffic. Therefore, it does not satisfy the requirement to exclude alerts based on trusted network IPs. Option B, Anomaly Trusted List, is more aligned with anomaly detection systems and behavioral baselines rather than excluding alerts on network traffic. It’s not the primary mechanism to prevent alerts triggered by known trusted IP addresses. Option D, Enterprise Alert Disposition, deals with the classification and handling of alerts after they are generated; it doesn’t prevent the initial alert generation based on trusted source IPs.

To summarize, to stop alerts from being triggered by trusted internal network traffic, configuring the Trusted Alert IP Addresses list ensures that these IPs are recognized as safe, which prevents the system from raising alerts based on their activity. This reduces false alarms and improves operational efficiency in security monitoring.

Question 9:

In Prisma Cloud Compute, which pages should the SecOps lead use to examine the runtime details of a suspected data exfiltration attack that was flagged by the DevOps lead?

A. Use Vulnerability Explorer and Runtime Radar to investigate the attack.
B. Use Incident Explorer and Compliance Explorer for the investigation.
C. Use the Incident Explorer page along with Monitor > Events > Container Audits.
D. Review vulnerability scans from the CI/CD pipeline to assign responsibility.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

When investigating a suspected data exfiltration attack in a containerized environment like Prisma Cloud Compute, the focus should be on runtime events and detailed container activity logs. This helps the SecOps lead understand what actually happened during execution rather than only examining static or pre-deployment data.

Let's evaluate each option in this context:

Option A (Vulnerability Explorer and Runtime Radar):
Vulnerability Explorer is primarily used to analyze container images for known vulnerabilities before deployment. Runtime Radar provides a general overview of runtime behavior, such as suspicious processes or policy violations. However, neither of these tools offers the detailed event-level audit logs or incident tracking required to investigate specific runtime data exfiltration attempts. Thus, while helpful for broader security insights, they are not ideal for incident investigation focused on runtime attacks.

Option B (Incident Explorer and Compliance Explorer):
Incident Explorer is an effective tool for tracking security incidents and investigating alerts, making it partially suitable. However, Compliance Explorer mainly addresses adherence to compliance standards and configuration best practices, rather than providing real-time investigative data about active attacks. Therefore, relying on Compliance Explorer does not directly help in understanding runtime data exfiltration.

Option C (Incident Explorer and Monitor > Events > Container Audits):
This combination is the most effective approach. Incident Explorer helps SecOps track and analyze specific alerts or incidents, such as suspicious activities related to data exfiltration. Meanwhile, the Monitor > Events > Container Audits page provides detailed logs of container-level actions, including system calls, file accesses, or network events, which can reveal malicious exfiltration behavior. By correlating incident data with granular audit logs, SecOps can thoroughly investigate the runtime activities that may indicate data leakage.

Option D (Review vulnerability scans in CI/CD):
Vulnerability scans during CI/CD pipelines focus on pre-deployment security and identify known vulnerabilities in images. These scans do not provide insight into runtime activities or ongoing attacks like data exfiltration, so they are not useful for runtime investigation.

In summary, to effectively investigate runtime data exfiltration in Prisma Cloud Compute, SecOps should use the Incident Explorer page together with Monitor > Events > Container Audits (Option C). This approach combines incident tracking with detailed container audit logs, providing a comprehensive view of the attack’s runtime behavior.

Question 10:

In a Palo Alto Networks firewall deployment, which function does a Security Policy Rule with the “Application Override” feature perform?

A. It automatically blocks all unknown applications by overriding their default behavior.
B. It allows you to specify and enforce a different application signature or behavior than what the firewall detects by default.
C. It disables application inspection for specific traffic to improve throughput.
D. It overrides the security policy to permit all traffic on a specific port regardless of application type.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

The Application Override feature in Palo Alto Networks firewalls is a powerful and nuanced tool within the Security Policy ruleset. Its primary role is to allow administrators to explicitly identify and enforce the use of a specific application signature for certain traffic flows, even if the firewall’s default App-ID (application identification) engine detects a different application or no application at all.

Here’s why this is important:

Palo Alto firewalls use App-ID to inspect network traffic and classify it based on application signatures, which enables granular security policies. However, there are cases where the default application detection might not align perfectly with the actual application in use. For example, certain custom or proprietary applications, tunneled traffic, or encrypted traffic may not be correctly identified. This can cause incorrect policy enforcement, such as blocking legitimate traffic or allowing unwanted traffic.

The Application Override rule lets you specify an override for these situations. By creating a policy rule with Application Override, you can instruct the firewall to treat all matching traffic as belonging to a chosen application, regardless of the default App-ID detection. This ensures consistent and accurate policy enforcement.

Why the other options are incorrect:

• A: Application Override does not automatically block unknown applications. It is about overriding detection, not blocking by default.

• C: It does not disable application inspection or scanning. The firewall continues to inspect traffic but uses the override for application identity.

• D: It does not override security policies to allow all traffic blindly. Policies still apply, but the application context is controlled.

In summary, Application Override empowers administrators to fine-tune application detection and policy enforcement, making it essential for environments with complex or custom application traffic. Understanding when and how to use this feature is key to passing the PCCSE exam and ensuring effective Palo Alto firewall management.