Fortinet  NSE7_EFW-7.2 Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions

Question 1:

An administrator has set up a TCL script on FortiManager, but after execution, the script does not apply any changes to the managed device. What is the most likely reason the TCL script failed to make changes?

A. The TCL procedure run_cmd was not created.
B. The TCL script must begin with #include.
C. The script lacks a corresponding #! to mark its end.
D. The TCL procedure is missing necessary loop statements to process the changes.

Answer: A

Explanation:

When a TCL script on FortiManager runs but fails to apply changes on the managed device, the issue often lies in how the script executes device commands. The key procedure responsible for sending commands to the managed device in TCL scripts is usually named run_cmd. If this procedure is not defined or implemented, the script cannot communicate any configuration changes to the device, leading to no updates being applied.

Looking at the other options helps clarify why they are less likely causes:

• Option B: The #include directive is used in some scripting languages to include external files or libraries. However, TCL scripts generally do not require a mandatory #include statement for their basic functionality. Its absence would not prevent the script from executing or applying changes unless the script depends on external code, which the question does not imply.

• Option C: The #! (shebang) line is typically used at the start of Unix/Linux scripts to specify the interpreter. It is not required to denote the end of a script and is generally irrelevant to TCL script execution in this context.

• Option D: While loops can be useful for iterating over data or commands, their absence does not inherently prevent changes from being applied. If the script’s goal is to send commands directly and sequentially, missing loops would not stop changes but rather affect efficiency or scope.

In summary, the failure stems from the absence of the run_cmd procedure, which is essential for executing commands on the managed device. Without it, the script lacks the mechanism to apply any modifications, making A the correct and most plausible answer.

Question 2:

You want to enhance the stability of an IPSec tunnel that experiences frequent packet loss. Which pair of IPSec Phase 1 parameters should you configure to improve tunnel reliability?

A. fec-ingress and fsc-egress
B. dpd and dpd-retryinterval
C. fragmentation and fragmentation-mtu
D. keepalive and keylive

Answer: B

Explanation:

In scenarios where an IPSec tunnel operates over a network prone to packet loss (a "lossy" environment), maintaining a stable and reliable connection is crucial. To address this, certain IPSec parameters must be configured that can detect tunnel failures and help re-establish connectivity promptly. The parameters dpd (Dead Peer Detection) and dpd-retryinterval serve this purpose effectively.

Dead Peer Detection (DPD) is a mechanism that regularly checks whether the remote peer at the other end of the IPSec tunnel is still responsive. If the peer stops responding, DPD flags the tunnel as inactive. This detection prevents the tunnel from remaining open when it is no longer functional, which could otherwise cause delays or failures in network communication.

The dpd-retryinterval setting determines how often these health checks are performed. Setting an appropriate retry interval ensures the system frequently verifies the peer’s availability, enabling rapid identification of connectivity problems. This is particularly important in lossy environments where network interruptions or packet drops might happen sporadically.

Reviewing the other options:

• A (fec-ingress and fsc-egress): These terms appear incorrectly formatted and are not standard IPSec parameters related to tunnel reliability.
  
  

• C (fragmentation and fragmentation-mtu): While fragmentation deals with splitting large packets to avoid MTU (Maximum Transmission Unit) issues, it primarily addresses packet size limitations rather than the stability or reliability of the tunnel connection itself.
  
  

• D (keepalive and keylive): Keepalive can help maintain an idle tunnel by sending periodic signals. However, keylive is not a recognized IPSec parameter. Furthermore, keepalive alone cannot detect a dead peer or initiate re-establishment, which makes it less reliable than DPD for maintaining tunnel stability.

Therefore, configuring dpd and dpd-retryinterval is the best practice to improve the resilience and reliability of an IPSec tunnel in a lossy network environment. This ensures that the tunnel is actively monitored and can recover quickly from peer failures, keeping communication consistent and dependable.

Question 3:

How are bulk configuration updates handled in FortiManager when using CLI scripts? (Select two)

A. Executing scripts on the Device Database applies changes directly to the managed FortiGate device.
B. Running scripts directly on a remote FortiGate prevents administrators from reviewing changes before installation.
C. Executing scripts on all FortiGates within an ADOM installs changes automatically without creating a new revision.
D. When using the Policy Package within the ADOM database, the installation wizard must be used to apply changes to the managed FortiGate device.

Correct Answers: A and D

Explanation:

FortiManager offers centralized management for FortiGate devices, enabling administrators to perform bulk configuration changes via CLI scripts. The execution context of these scripts affects how and when the changes are applied.

A. Running CLI scripts on the Device Database within FortiManager applies the changes immediately to the specific managed FortiGate device. This method enables administrators to push bulk updates directly, avoiding manual configuration on individual devices. It is an efficient approach when device-specific updates are needed.

B. The claim that administrators cannot review changes when running scripts on a remote FortiGate directly is incorrect. FortiManager typically allows review and validation of configuration changes before committing them to devices, ensuring safer deployments and minimizing errors.

C. Changes are never automatically installed across all FortiGates within an Administrative Domain (ADOM) without revision tracking. FortiManager uses a revision control system to maintain a history of changes, supporting auditing and rollback if necessary.

D. When scripts modify configurations within a Policy Package in the ADOM database, the changes are staged but require the use of the installation wizard to be deployed to managed FortiGate devices. This process allows administrators to review, validate, and confirm changes before they take effect, providing controlled deployment.

In summary, bulk configuration changes pushed directly through the Device Database (A) apply immediately, while Policy Package changes require an explicit installation step through the wizard (D). This design balances efficiency with governance and error prevention in FortiManager-managed environments.

Question 4:

Based on the provided output, what is the status of Network Processes (NPs) and Control Processes (CPs)?

A. Only Network Processes are disabled
B. Only Control Processes are disabled
C. Both Network Processes and Control Processes are enabled
D. Both Network Processes and Control Processes are disabled

Correct Answer: Dependent on the specific output provided.

Explanation:

To accurately determine the status of Network Processes (NPs) and Control Processes (CPs), one must carefully analyze the output that displays their operational states. These terms often appear in networking or system diagnostics and refer to groups of services or system components critical for functionality.

A. If the output indicates that NPs are disabled, but CPs remain active, this implies that the network-facing operations or services represented by NPs are halted, while the control or management processes are running.

B. Conversely, if CPs are disabled but NPs are active, this suggests the system is running its network services but lacks control or coordination processes, which may cause unstable or degraded operation.

C. Both NPs and CPs enabled means all critical processes are operational, implying the system or network device is fully functional.

D. If both are disabled, the system is effectively non-operational or in a maintenance state.

Without the exact output, it is impossible to definitively select the correct option. The interpretation depends entirely on the data shown. Typical outputs list process states as "enabled," "running," "disabled," or "stopped," and the answer derives from these indicators.

If you can provide the output details, a precise conclusion can be drawn. Otherwise, the correct interpretation relies on matching the output’s status indicators with the definitions of enabled/disabled for NPs and CPs.

Question 5:

Why are you able to modify the Engineering address object but not the Finance address object?

A. Your access permissions are read-only.
B. Another user is editing the Finance address object in workspace mode.
C. The FortiGate has joined the Security Fabric, and the Finance address object was configured on the root FortiGate.
D. The FortiGate is registered on FortiManager.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

In FortiGate management, the ability to modify address objects depends on how these objects are configured and managed, especially in environments using Security Fabric or centralized management.

A. If your permissions were read-only, you wouldn’t be able to modify any address objects at all, including Engineering. Since you can change the Engineering object, this option is not applicable.

B. If another user is editing the Finance address object in workspace mode, you might experience conflicts or warnings. However, usually, this does not completely lock you out of editing the object once the other user finishes or checks the object back in. This alone does not explain why modification is outright disallowed.

C. This is the correct scenario. When FortiGate devices are integrated into a Security Fabric, certain configurations are managed centrally from a root FortiGate. If the Finance address object is created and controlled on the root device, it becomes locked for editing on other devices within the fabric to maintain consistency and central control. Meanwhile, the Engineering address object, which was likely created locally on the individual FortiGate device, remains editable by local administrators.

D. Registration with FortiManager allows centralized management but does not inherently prevent editing of specific objects unless policies or roles enforce restrictions. This does not explain why only one address object is locked while another is editable.

In conclusion, the restriction on the Finance address object is due to the Security Fabric architecture, where root-level configuration management enforces control, making C the best explanation.

Question 6:

Which two statements about the neighbor-group command are accurate? Select two options.

A. It applies shared settings within an OSPF area.
B. It can be used for both Internal BGP (IBGP) and External BGP (EBGP) neighbors.
C. It is configurable through the graphical user interface (GUI).
D. It is used together with the neighbor-range parameter.

Correct Answers: B, D

Explanation:

The neighbor-group command is primarily designed for use in BGP configurations, not for OSPF or other routing protocols. It allows network administrators to group multiple BGP neighbors to apply common configuration settings efficiently. This is particularly useful in large-scale BGP environments where many neighbors share similar policies, helping to reduce repetitive commands and configuration errors.

Option A is incorrect because the neighbor-group command is not related to OSPF. OSPF uses different mechanisms and commands for managing area-wide settings and does not include neighbor-group functionality.

Option B is correct since the neighbor-group command is applicable to both IBGP and EBGP neighbors. This flexibility allows administrators to streamline configuration management for all BGP neighbors, regardless of whether they are internal to the Autonomous System or external peers.

Option C is incorrect because, although some devices may offer GUI tools, the neighbor-group command is typically a command-line interface (CLI) feature. Most granular BGP configurations, such as neighbor grouping, require CLI input because GUIs often do not provide this level of control or may lack support for this specific command.

Option D is correct because the neighbor-range parameter often works in conjunction with neighbor-group. The neighbor-range command defines a block of neighbor IP addresses, allowing the administrator to apply the settings specified in the neighbor group to an entire range of peers instead of configuring each neighbor individually. This combination simplifies the management of large BGP setups.

In summary, the two accurate statements are that neighbor-group can be applied to both IBGP and EBGP neighbors (B) and that it is used along with the neighbor-range parameter to manage multiple neighbors efficiently (D).

Question 7:

Based on the command output provided, which two conclusions can be drawn? Choose two.

A. Dead Peer Detection (DPD) is enabled.
B. The Internet Key Exchange (IKE) protocol version is 2.
C. Both IPsec Security Associations (SAs) are active in the kernel.
D. Forward Error Correction (FEC) is enabled for Phase 2 of the VPN tunnel.

Correct Answers: A, C

Explanation:

When analyzing VPN-related command outputs, especially those pertaining to IPsec and IKE, it’s essential to understand the significance of the different parameters and status indicators.

Option A is correct because Dead Peer Detection (DPD) is a mechanism that continuously monitors the availability of the VPN peer. If enabled, DPD ensures that if the remote peer becomes unresponsive or disconnected, the local device detects this promptly and can take corrective action, such as reestablishing the tunnel. If the command output indicates DPD is active, this is a strong confirmation that the system actively monitors the health of the VPN connection.

Option B cannot be conclusively determined without explicit mention in the output. The IKE protocol has two main versions, IKEv1 and IKEv2, with IKEv2 providing improved features and security. However, unless the command output explicitly states the IKE version, one cannot assume it is IKEv2.

Option C is correct because IPsec Security Associations represent the negotiated parameters and keys that secure the communication between VPN peers. If the output shows both IPsec SAs are loaded into the kernel, it means the secure communication pathways are established and active at the operating system level, allowing encrypted traffic to flow properly.

Option D regarding Forward Error Correction (FEC) in Phase 2 is a specialized feature aimed at improving tunnel reliability by correcting packet loss. Unless the output specifically shows FEC is enabled, it cannot be confirmed from typical status commands.

In conclusion, the command output clearly supports the statements that Dead Peer Detection is enabled (A) and that the IPsec SAs are active and loaded in the kernel (C). Without explicit information, the other options remain uncertain.

Question 8:

Which two statements accurately describe the behavior of IKEv2 fragmentation? (Select two.)

A. Fragmentation applies only to certain types of IKEv2 packets
B. The default timeout for fragment reassembly is set to 30 seconds
C. Fragmentation occurs at the IP layer
D. The maximum number of fragments allowed is 128

Answer: A and B

Explanation:

IKE version 2 (IKEv2) fragmentation is a mechanism that breaks large negotiation messages into smaller fragments to ensure smooth transmission over networks with limited MTU sizes. Understanding how this fragmentation works is important for configuring VPNs and troubleshooting issues.

Option A is correct because only specific IKEv2 packets are subject to fragmentation. Typically, packets containing large payloads—like extensive certificates or keys—are fragmented. Smaller packets or those that do not exceed the MTU threshold are not fragmented. This selective fragmentation optimizes network efficiency by avoiding unnecessary overhead for smaller packets.

Option B is also true. When fragments are sent, the receiving device must reassemble them into the original packet within a defined timeframe. For IKEv2, the default reassembly timeout is 30 seconds. If the fragments do not arrive and reassemble within this period, the entire negotiation process can fail, possibly causing connection issues or drops.

Option C is incorrect. While IP layer fragmentation exists, IKEv2 fragmentation is handled at the IKE protocol layer. This means the protocol itself manages splitting and reassembling the packets, independent of the IP layer’s fragmentation. This higher-layer control allows IKEv2 to better handle security and reassembly processes specific to key exchange.

Option D is not accurate. There isn’t a fixed or standard maximum number of fragments like 128 defined for IKEv2 fragmentation. The number of fragments depends on the payload size and network MTU, so it can vary.

In summary, the key points to remember are that only certain large IKEv2 packets are fragmented, and that there is a 30-second window to reassemble these fragments. This understanding helps network engineers troubleshoot VPN negotiation issues related to fragmentation.

Question 9:

After configuring two FortiGate units in an HA cluster, the network switches continue sending traffic to the original primary device after failover. What should the administrator do to resolve this issue?

A. Enable the link-failed-signal setting on both HA members
B. Enable sending Gratuitous ARP (GARP) messages on failover on both HA members
C. Configure remote link monitoring to detect forwarding path failures
D. Ensure speed and duplex settings match between FortiGate interfaces and switch ports

Answer: B

Explanation:

In a FortiGate High Availability (HA) setup, seamless failover is critical to maintain network stability and continuous service. When failover occurs, the new primary device takes over traffic forwarding. However, if the connected switches are unaware of this change, they may continue directing traffic to the old primary device, causing network disruption.

Option B is the best solution. Enabling the send-garp-on-failover setting triggers Gratuitous ARP messages after failover. GARP messages inform switches that the MAC address associated with a particular IP address has changed. This prompts the switches to update their ARP tables, ensuring traffic flows to the new primary FortiGate. Without this notification, switches will keep sending packets to the old MAC address, causing packet loss or delay.

Option A relates to the link-failed-signal feature, which monitors physical link status to trigger failover. While useful for detecting link failures, it does not notify switches of a MAC address change after failover. Hence, it doesn’t resolve the stale ARP issue.

Option C involves remote link monitoring, which helps detect link issues in the forwarding path but is unrelated to switches updating ARP tables after an HA failover.

Option D suggests verifying speed and duplex settings match, which is important for preventing network errors but does not address the core issue of switches continuing to send traffic to the old primary device.

In conclusion, enabling Gratuitous ARP on failover is essential in FortiGate HA clusters to ensure network switches promptly recognize the new primary device and correctly forward traffic. This step is critical for maintaining network resiliency and minimizing downtime during failover events.

Question 10:

You are a Fortinet NSE7_EFW-7 certified engineer tasked with configuring SSL deep inspection on a FortiGate firewall to inspect encrypted traffic for threats. The organization wants to ensure minimal impact on end-user experience while maximizing security. 

Which of the following configurations will BEST achieve this goal?

A. Enable full SSL deep inspection for all inbound and outbound traffic with the default certificate.
B. Use certificate inspection for all traffic except for known trusted sites, where no inspection is applied.
C. Configure selective SSL deep inspection using whitelist and blacklist URLs, combined with certificate inspection for unknown sites.
D. Disable SSL inspection and rely solely on traditional signature-based antivirus scanning.

Answer: C

Explanation:

In the Fortinet NSE7_EFW-7 exam, understanding SSL deep inspection—also known as SSL/TLS inspection—is critical. It is essential for inspecting encrypted traffic to detect hidden threats but can impact performance and user experience if not configured carefully.

Option A suggests enabling full SSL deep inspection for all traffic using the default certificate. While this approach maximizes security by decrypting and inspecting every SSL session, it introduces significant challenges. Full inspection increases CPU load and latency, which can degrade user experience. Also, using the default certificate can trigger certificate warnings on client devices because it is not trusted, causing usability issues.

Option B involves using certificate inspection for all traffic except trusted sites where no inspection is applied. Certificate inspection (also called certificate validation or simple inspection) allows the firewall to check certificate validity without decrypting the traffic. Skipping inspection for trusted sites reduces overhead, but applying certificate inspection universally can miss threats hidden inside encrypted payloads on unknown or suspicious sites.

Option C is the best practice and the most balanced approach. Selective SSL deep inspection involves maintaining a whitelist of trusted URLs or categories that bypass deep inspection to avoid latency and user disruptions and a blacklist of risky or suspicious sites that always undergo full inspection. For sites not in either list, certificate inspection is applied. This setup optimizes security by inspecting high-risk traffic while preserving performance and minimizing certificate warnings on trusted sites. It balances security, compliance, and user experience effectively.

Option D is not recommended because disabling SSL inspection means encrypted threats can pass undetected through the firewall, exposing the network to potential risks. Relying only on traditional antivirus scanning on unencrypted traffic leaves encrypted channels unchecked, which is a significant security gap.

In summary, Option C leverages FortiGate’s flexible SSL inspection features to deliver strong security while minimizing disruption. It aligns with Fortinet’s best practices and enterprise requirements, making it the most appropriate answer for the NSE7_EFW-7 exam scenario.