ServiceNow CAD Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions

Question 1:

Which of the following actions can be performed using a Form Designer tool?

a) Dragging a field from the Fields tab onto the form layout to add it.
b) Creating a new field in the form's underlying table by dragging a data type from the Field Types tab and then configuring it.
c) Removing a field from the form by hovering over it and clicking the Delete (X) button.
d) Adding a section to the form by dragging it from the Field Types tab to the form layout.

Which of these options correctly lists the valid Form Designer actions?

A. a, b, c, and d
B. b, c, and d
C. a, b, and d
D. a, b, and c

Answer: A

Explanation:

A Form Designer is a common feature in many software platforms such as ServiceNow, Salesforce, and others, which enables users to build, customize, and manage data collection forms easily through a graphical interface. Understanding the capabilities of a Form Designer is crucial for effective form creation and management.

Option a describes dragging a pre-existing field from the Fields tab into the form layout to place it. This action is fundamental and typical of form designers, allowing users to add existing fields to a form without creating new database entries. It is a straightforward drag-and-drop operation that enhances user efficiency when arranging the form layout.

Option b involves creating a new field in the form’s table by dragging a data type from the Field Types tab. This means the user is not only placing a field but also defining a new database column or attribute by selecting the appropriate data type (e.g., text, number, date). After placing it, configuring the field’s properties (name, validation rules, etc.) is necessary to finalize the addition. This functionality provides flexibility to tailor forms to specific needs.

Option c refers to the ability to remove an unwanted field from the form. Most Form Designers allow users to hover over any field within the layout to reveal action buttons, including a Delete (X) button. Clicking this button removes the field from the form, though it does not necessarily delete the field from the underlying database—just from the form view.

Option d is about adding a section to the form to organize related fields together. Sections help improve form usability by grouping similar fields logically, making forms easier to navigate. Sections can typically be added by dragging them from the Field Types tab to the desired place in the form.

Since all four actions—adding existing fields, creating new fields, removing fields, and adding sections—are common capabilities of Form Designer tools, all options (a, b, c, and d) are correct. Therefore, the comprehensive answer is A.

Question 2:

When configuring an Email Notification, which of the following are essential settings to specify?

 A. The recipients who will receive the notification.
B. The content that will be included in the notification message.
C. The timing or trigger condition for sending the notification.
D. The method or protocol used to send the notification.

Answer:  A

Explanation:

Email Notifications are automated messages triggered by specific events or conditions in systems such as IT service management, customer relationship management, or other business applications. Setting them up correctly ensures timely communication and response to important events.

Option a highlights the recipients of the notification. Defining who receives the email is fundamental because a notification serves no purpose if it’s not directed to the right audience. Recipients may be individual users, user groups, or dynamically determined based on roles or data attributes.

Option b refers to the content of the email, which is essential as it conveys the message. This content can be static or dynamic, including placeholders that pull relevant information such as ticket numbers, incident descriptions, priorities, or user details. Without properly defining what is included, the notification could be unclear or unhelpful.

Option c involves when the email is sent, which could be triggered by events (like the creation of a new incident) or scheduled timings (such as daily reports). Setting triggers or conditions ensures notifications are relevant and timely, rather than sent indiscriminately.

Option d suggests specifying how the email is sent — for example, the SMTP server details or email protocol settings. However, these technical configurations are generally managed at the system or infrastructure level by administrators and are not part of the notification setup interface where recipients, content, and triggers are defined.

Reviewing the options shows that the key aspects of configuring an Email Notification include defining who gets the message (a), what the message contains (b), and when it should be sent (c). The actual method of sending (d) is handled outside the scope of the notification setup itself.

Therefore, the correct answer is A, as it includes the core components of recipient, content, and timing, which are essential for effective Email Notification configuration.

Question 3:

What is the most effective way to review all scripts, reports, and other components that will be included when publishing an application?

A. Use the Global search bar to find the application by name.
B. Access the instance's list of Update Sets.
C. Check the Application Files Related List within the application to be published.
D. Manually open each artifact record to confirm its Application field.

Answer: C

Explanation:

When preparing an application for publication in platforms like ServiceNow, it’s crucial to confirm which components—such as scripts, reports, tables, forms, UI policies, business rules, and other artifacts—are bundled within that application. This verification ensures that nothing essential is accidentally omitted or included erroneously.

Starting with option A, using the Global search to locate an application simply helps you find the application record itself. It doesn’t provide detailed visibility into the specific artifacts associated with the application. Therefore, while it’s a quick way to locate the app, it falls short in revealing the complete set of components packaged within.

Next, option B involves examining Update Sets. Update Sets are primarily used to track and transfer customizations between instances. Although they might contain artifacts, their scope is broader and not necessarily tied one-to-one with a specific application. Update Sets don’t reliably list all the components that belong to a single application, making this option less effective for artifact review.

Option D suggests opening each artifact individually to verify the application association. While technically feasible, this is a highly inefficient and error-prone approach, especially in environments with many artifacts. It requires excessive manual effort and risks missing some components or introducing human error.

Option C, examining the Application Files Related List, is the most streamlined and accurate method. This list is designed to consolidate and display all files and artifacts tied to a specific application in one place. It gives developers and administrators a centralized, comprehensive view of every component—scripts, reports, tables, UI policies, and more—that will be included during publication. This makes it easy to validate completeness and correctness before finalizing the publishing process.

In summary, the Application Files Related List offers the most practical and reliable way to review all the elements of an application, ensuring that nothing critical is overlooked. It is a centralized source that saves time, reduces errors, and supports thorough quality assurance. Therefore, option C is the best choice for reviewing application artifacts prior to publishing.

Question 4:

Which of the following is NOT a valid method for debugging client-side scripts in ServiceNow?

A. g_form.addInfoMessage()
B. Field Watcher
C. jslog()
D. gs.log()

Answer: D

Explanation:

Debugging client-side scripts in ServiceNow requires tools and methods that operate within the user’s browser, as client-side code executes there. Understanding which debugging tools are appropriate hinges on knowing the execution environment of the script.

Let’s examine the options individually:

Option A: g_form.addInfoMessage()
This method is commonly used in client scripts to show informational messages directly on the form interface. It’s highly useful during debugging or user interaction feedback because it displays messages at the top of the form, visible in real-time. This method works strictly on the client side, making it a valid debugging tool for client-side scripts.

Option B: Field Watcher
Field Watcher is a feature in ServiceNow that monitors changes on form fields live as users interact with the form. It helps developers understand when and how client-side scripts modify or respond to field values. Since it operates within the browser and tracks client-side changes, it’s a relevant and effective debugging strategy.

Option C: jslog()
The jslog() function writes output to the browser’s developer console. This is a very common debugging approach in JavaScript, allowing developers to track variable values, execution flow, and errors while the script runs in the browser environment. It’s an ideal client-side debugging tool.

Option D: gs.log()
In contrast, gs.log() is a server-side logging function in ServiceNow, used within scripts executed on the server—such as Business Rules, Script Includes, or Workflow scripts. It writes messages to the system logs on the ServiceNow backend, not the browser. Since client-side scripts run in the user’s browser, gs.log() is ineffective for debugging client-side code. It simply won’t execute or output logs there.

To summarize, while g_form.addInfoMessage(), Field Watcher, and jslog() are tailored for client-side debugging, gs.log() is strictly a server-side logging mechanism. Thus, gs.log() does not serve as a debugging strategy for client-side scripts.

Therefore, the correct answer is D, because it is not a valid debugging method for client-side scripting in ServiceNow.

Question 5:

In ServiceNow’s Application Access settings, if the Can read permission is not enabled, which of the following fields become inaccessible?

A. All web services access to the table
B. Can create, Can update, and Can delete
C. The availability of other Application Access fields remains unaffected by Can read
D. Allow configuration

Answer: B

Explanation:

In ServiceNow, Application Access controls what users can do with the data stored in a specific table, including permissions for reading, creating, updating, and deleting records. The Can read permission is fundamental because it governs whether a user can even see the data in a table. Without read access, other operations logically cannot be performed, because a user who cannot view records cannot effectively manipulate them.

Let's analyze the options:

• A. All web services access to the table: This option is incorrect. Web services access is generally managed separately from Application Access permissions. Even if Can read is disabled, web service permissions are governed by roles, authentication, and web service security policies, so this field is unaffected directly by the Can read setting.

• B. Can create, Can update, and Can delete: This is the correct answer. In ServiceNow, these permissions are conditional on the ability to read the records first. If the user cannot read records in a table, the system disables the ability to create, update, or delete records because these actions require an understanding of the existing data structure and content. This interdependency ensures data integrity and security.

• C. The availability of other Application Access fields remains unaffected by Can read: This statement is false because Can read directly affects other permissions like create, update, and delete. If read is unchecked, these fields automatically become unavailable.

• D. Allow configuration: This field controls whether configuration changes can be made to the table (such as altering columns or settings). It is a separate concern from user data access and is usually reserved for admins or specific roles. Therefore, it is not affected by the Can read setting.

Why B is correct:
The Can read permission acts as a gatekeeper. Without read permission, users cannot see the records, making any write operations impossible or illogical. Hence, when Can read is not selected, the system disables the create, update, and delete permissions for that user or role to prevent unauthorized data manipulation.

In summary, Can read is the baseline permission that enables further interaction with the data. Without it, the user cannot perform any modifications, making option B the accurate answer.

Question 6:

Which of the following options is not a recognized trigger type within ServiceNow’s Flow Designer?

A. Outbound Email
B. Application
C. Record
D. Schedule

Answer: A

Explanation:

ServiceNow's Flow Designer is a powerful, low-code tool designed to automate business processes by defining workflows called flows. A flow consists of a trigger and a series of actions that execute based on that trigger. Triggers start the flow when a specific event or condition occurs. Understanding the available trigger types is key to effective flow design.

Let’s examine each choice:

• A. Outbound Email: This is not a valid trigger type. Although Flow Designer can send outbound emails as part of its actions, outbound email itself does not initiate or trigger flows. Instead, it is an outcome of a flow rather than a trigger. Flows are started by system or data events, not by sending emails.

• B. Application: This is a valid trigger. It starts flows based on events occurring within a specific application scope. For example, changes or creation of records related to an application can trigger flows to automate processes linked to that app.

• C. Record: Another valid trigger type, this starts flows based on record-level changes such as creation, update, or deletion. This is one of the most common trigger types since many workflows revolve around manipulating data records like incidents, requests, or approvals.

• D. Schedule: Also a legitimate trigger type, it allows flows to run on a time-based schedule or recurrence. For example, flows can be triggered daily, weekly, or at specific intervals for routine tasks like cleanup jobs or sending reminders.

Why A is correct:
The Flow Designer differentiates triggers (events that start the flow) from actions (tasks the flow performs). Outbound Email is an action performed within a flow but is not an event that triggers a flow. Triggers are tied to system or user events, such as record changes or scheduled times. Outbound emails are outcomes, not triggers.

Thus, understanding this distinction clarifies that the only invalid trigger type listed is Outbound Email. Application, Record, and Schedule are all standard and supported trigger types that initiate flows based on different kinds of events or conditions in ServiceNow.

Question 7:

In a scoped application within ServiceNow, for which of the following types is cross-scope access automatically enabled when new application files are created?

A. REST messages
B. Table
C. Script Include
D. Workflow

Answer: A

Explanation:

In ServiceNow, scoped applications are designed to isolate customizations and configurations, ensuring that each app's data and logic remain contained and protected from unintended external access. This encapsulation increases security and prevents accidental interference between different parts of the platform. One key concept within this framework is cross-scope access, which determines whether resources from one scope can be accessed or invoked by another scope.

By default, cross-scope access is restricted to maintain this isolation and avoid potential security risks. However, some exceptions exist where cross-scope access is automatically allowed due to the nature of the functionality.

REST messages are one such exception. They enable communication between the scoped application and external systems or other ServiceNow instances via HTTP requests. Because REST messages often need to interact beyond their own scope boundaries to perform integrations and exchange data, ServiceNow enables cross-scope access for REST messages by default. This automatic allowance simplifies development and integration scenarios, enabling these messages to call endpoints or services across scope boundaries without additional configuration.

Looking at the other options:

• Tables: By default, tables created within a scoped application do not allow cross-scope access. This restriction is crucial because tables often contain sensitive data, and unrestricted access could lead to data leakage or integrity issues. If cross-scope access is needed for a table, administrators must explicitly enable it.

• Script Includes: These are server-side reusable scripts, and like tables, they are locked within their scope unless specifically allowed for cross-scope access. By default, Script Includes cannot be accessed from other scopes to prevent unauthorized or unintended execution of server-side code.

• Workflows: Workflows automate business processes and are similarly scoped. Cross-scope access is not enabled by default because workflows frequently manipulate data or processes that should remain contained within their scope unless explicit permission is given.

The reason REST messages are treated differently is due to their fundamental role in external communication and integration. Automatically allowing cross-scope access ensures smoother interoperability and reduces the administrative overhead of configuring each integration point manually.

In summary, while most resources in a scoped application maintain strict boundaries, REST messages are the exception where cross-scope access is enabled by default to facilitate communication beyond the application's boundaries. Hence, A. REST messages is the correct answer.

Question 8:

Regarding the Weight field in ServiceNow Email Notifications, which of the following statements is incorrect?

A. Only notifications with the highest weight for the same record and recipients are sent.
B. A weight value of zero means no email will be sent.
C. The weight value defaults to zero.
D. A weight value of zero means the notification is always sent if the "When to send" conditions are met.

Answer: B

Explanation:

In ServiceNow, Email Notifications automate communication by sending emails when specified conditions or events occur. The Weight field within these notifications plays a pivotal role in managing the order and priority of emails, especially when multiple notifications might trigger for the same record and recipient.

Let’s clarify the role of the Weight field through the given options:

• A: This statement is accurate. When several notifications could be triggered simultaneously for the same recipient and record, ServiceNow uses the Weight field to determine which notification to send. Only the notifications with the highest weight value get sent, ensuring the most important or relevant notification takes precedence.

• B: This statement is false and thus the correct answer. A Weight of zero does not mean that an email won’t be sent. Instead, zero is the default neutral priority. Notifications with zero weight will still be sent if they meet the triggering criteria, provided no other notifications with higher weights supersede them.

• C: This is true. When creating a new email notification, the Weight field automatically defaults to zero, indicating a neutral priority unless adjusted.

• D: This is also correct. A Weight of zero means the notification will be sent whenever its “When to send” conditions are satisfied, assuming no other notifications with higher weight block it.

The key misunderstanding in option B is equating a zero weight with suppression of the notification. In reality, the weight field acts as a priority mechanism, not an enable/disable toggle. Notifications with zero weight function normally unless other higher-weighted notifications prevent them from being sent.

Thus, the Weight field’s purpose is to resolve conflicts and prioritize notifications, not to block them outright. Understanding this helps administrators manage complex notification workflows where multiple emails might be triggered for the same event and user.

In conclusion, the incorrect statement about the Weight field is B. A weight value of zero means no email will be sent, because a zero weight simply represents a neutral priority, not an inhibition of sending the notification.

Question 9:

In ServiceNow, which object is not accessible within a Display Business Rule?

A. previous
B. GlideSystem
C. g_scratchpad
D. current

Answer: A

Explanation:

Business Rules in ServiceNow are server-side scripts that run in response to database operations such as inserts, updates, deletions, or queries. They automate processes and enforce business logic, and different types of Business Rules exist depending on when they execute: before or after database operations, or when a record is displayed to the user. One specialized type is the Display Business Rule, which executes just before a record is shown on a form or UI, giving an opportunity to modify the record’s data or add information for client-side scripts.

Understanding which objects are available within a Display Business Rule is essential. The four options here — previous, GlideSystem (gs), g_scratchpad, and current — each serve different purposes.

• The previous object represents the state of a record before it was changed. It’s mostly used in Update, Insert, or Delete Business Rules to compare past and new values, helping to track changes or enforce rules based on what has been modified. However, Display Business Rules do not execute in the context of data modifications but simply when a record is being fetched for display. Since no update has occurred yet, the previous state does not exist or isn’t accessible. Therefore, previous is not accessible in Display Business Rules.

• The GlideSystem (gs) object is a system utility object available across all types of Business Rules. It provides useful methods for logging, system information, and more, regardless of rule type. It’s always accessible, including within Display Business Rules.

• The g_scratchpad is a special object used specifically in Display Business Rules to pass data from the server-side rule to client-side scripts (like Client Scripts or UI Policies). It enables communication between server and client during form rendering, making it critical in Display Business Rules.

• The current object represents the record currently being processed. It allows the script to read and modify data of the record about to be displayed. This object is always available in Display Business Rules because the rule’s purpose is to manipulate or prepare the current record for display.

In summary, the previous object is unique to data modification contexts and is unavailable in Display Business Rules, which operate purely on data retrieval and display. Objects like GlideSystem, g_scratchpad, and current are accessible to support system tasks, data transfer, and record manipulation for display purposes. Thus, option A (previous) is the correct answer.

Question 10:

Which two features are supported for Global Applications in ServiceNow? (Select two)

A. Automated Test Framework
B. Source Control
C. Delegated Development
D. Flow Designer

Answer: B, D

Explanation:

In ServiceNow, applications can be developed either within a scoped environment (Scoped Applications) or globally within the platform’s global scope (Global Applications). Each has specific capabilities and restrictions designed to manage security, development workflow, and access control effectively.

Global Applications are created in the global scope, which means they are not isolated within a defined scope boundary. This allows them greater access to system-wide features and resources but also introduces limitations to protect the integrity and manageability of the overall platform.

Reviewing the four options reveals which are available to Global Applications:

• Automated Test Framework (ATF): The ATF is a tool designed to automate testing of application components to ensure quality and functionality. However, ATF is primarily built for Scoped Applications and is not available to Global Applications. This separation helps maintain testing integrity and scope-based isolation.

• Source Control: This feature integrates with external version control systems like Git or SVN to allow tracking, versioning, and collaboration on application code. Source Control is available for Global Applications, enabling developers to manage application changes effectively across multiple environments, which is crucial for enterprise-grade development and deployment.

• Delegated Development: This feature enables division of development responsibilities within Scoped Applications, allowing different teams or developers to work on parts of an app securely within their scope. Because Global Applications lack the strict boundaries of scoped environments, Delegated Development is not available to them.

• Flow Designer: Flow Designer is a powerful low-code tool for building automated workflows and process automation. It is accessible in both Global and Scoped Applications, making it widely usable to design and automate business processes across the platform.

Thus, the two features that Global Applications can use are Source Control (B) and Flow Designer (D). These provide robust development lifecycle management and automation capabilities while fitting the global scope’s nature.

To summarize, Global Applications have access to system-wide features like Source Control and Flow Designer, but do not support Scoped Application-specific features like Automated Test Framework and Delegated Development. This distinction helps maintain platform stability and security while enabling powerful development and automation capabilities. Therefore, B and D are the correct answers.