Checkpoint 156-315.81.20 Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions

Question 1:

Which command correctly adds a new host named "emailserver1" with the IP address 10.50.23.90 using the GAiA Management CLI?

A. mgmt._cli add host name “emailserver1” ip-address 10.50.23.90
B. mgmt._cli add host “emailserver1” address 10.50.23.90
C. mgmt._cli add host name “myHost12 ip” address 10.50.23.90
D. mgmt._cli add host name ip-address 10.50.23.90

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

When managing Check Point security devices using GAiA Management CLI, it is essential to use the correct syntax for adding new hosts to ensure proper registration and configuration within the security management framework. The mgmt._cli tool is the command-line interface that interacts directly with the management server for administrative tasks.

Option A follows the precise syntax required:

• mgmt._cli add host — initiates the action to add a new host object.

• name “emailserver1” — specifies the hostname that identifies the device.

• ip-address 10.50.23.90 — assigns the IP address of the host.

This clear structure with explicit parameters (name and ip-address) is crucial for the command to succeed. It follows the documented GAiA CLI conventions.

Option B uses the parameter address instead of ip-address, which is incorrect because GAiA expects the keyword ip-address to define the IP field. This subtle but critical mistake renders the command invalid.

Option C is doubly flawed: the host name “myHost12 ip” is malformed due to the inclusion of spaces and the word ip inappropriately, and it also incorrectly uses the parameter address. Host names should be single, valid identifiers without spaces or extraneous terms.

Option D is incomplete and syntactically wrong. It fails to pair a proper hostname with an IP address, making it an invalid command.

In summary, option A is the only choice that correctly formats the GAiA CLI command for adding a new host with the given name and IP address, making it the right answer.

Question 2:

Which of the following is NOT a valid method to communicate with Check Point’s Management API?

A. Entering API commands through Gaia’s secure shell (clish)
B. Typing API commands inside a dialog box within the SmartConsole GUI
C. Sending API requests via HTTP through web services
D. Using the mgmt._cli command-line tool

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Check Point’s Management API offers multiple avenues for administrators to interact with the management server programmatically, automating tasks like configuration, monitoring, and policy management. Understanding the proper interfaces for API communication is critical.

Option A is valid. Gaia’s clish (Command Line Interface Shell) provides a secure environment where administrators can input commands, including those that invoke or wrap API calls. Though clish is primarily a command shell, it can be used to execute management API commands indirectly, making this a valid method.

Option B is incorrect. The SmartConsole GUI is a graphical user interface designed for visual management and configuration of Check Point environments. It does not provide a dialog box or console to manually type raw API commands. While SmartConsole interacts with the management server and underlying API, it does so via GUI controls, not direct command input. Therefore, API commands cannot be typed directly within SmartConsole, making this the invalid option.

Option C is a standard and widely-used method. The Management API exposes RESTful web services, allowing administrators or external tools to send HTTP requests to execute commands or retrieve information. This method supports integration with automation tools, scripts, and third-party applications.

Option D refers to mgmt._cli, a command-line tool specifically designed for sending API commands to the management server. This tool allows direct command input and is commonly used for scripting and automation, making it a valid API communication method.

To summarize, the only method listed that does NOT support direct Management API communication is B, typing API commands inside a dialog box in SmartConsole, which functions as a GUI rather than a raw API command interface.

Question 3:

Which of the following is not classified as a type of Check Point API available in version R80.x?

A. Identity Awareness Web Services
B. OPSEC SDK
C. Management
D. Mobile Access

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Check Point R80.x offers several APIs designed to facilitate automation and integration for administrators managing Check Point security products. Understanding the distinct API types helps differentiate their capabilities and availability. Let’s evaluate each option to identify the one that is not an API type in R80.x.

• Identity Awareness Web Services: This API allows integration of user identity data into Check Point security policies. It supports identity-based enforcement by exposing identity-related services, making it a valid API type in R80.x.

• OPSEC SDK: The OPSEC (Open Platform for Security) Software Development Kit is a set of development tools and libraries enabling custom integrations with Check Point firewalls and security gateways. It’s widely used to extend and automate firewall functionality, confirming it as a legitimate API option in R80.x.

• Management: The Management API facilitates programmatic interaction with Check Point management servers, enabling automation of configuration, policy management, and log retrieval. This API is a core part of the R80.x management framework.

• Mobile Access: While Check Point provides Mobile Access solutions for secure remote connectivity, this is a product or service rather than a dedicated API. Unlike the above options, there is no standalone Mobile Access API designed for management or integration in R80.x. Mobile Access functions primarily as a user access platform without an API interface comparable to Identity Awareness or Management APIs.

Because Mobile Access does not represent a recognized API type within R80.x, it is the correct answer to the question. The other three options correspond to distinct and supported API categories within the Check Point ecosystem.

Question 4:

Which API command is used to create a new host object named "My Host" with the IP address "192.168.0.10" in Check Point?

A. set host name “My Host” ip-address “192.168.0.10”
B. create host name “My Host” ip-address “192.168.0.10”
C. new host name “My Host” ip-address “192.168.0.10”
D. mgmt_cli –m <mgmt ip> add host name “My Host” ip-address “192.168.0.10”

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

When working with Check Point’s management APIs, understanding the correct syntax and command usage is crucial for effective automation, especially when creating new network objects such as hosts.

• Option A (set host ...): The set command in Check Point’s CLI or API is designed for modifying existing objects rather than creating new ones. Attempting to use set to create a host object would be incorrect since the object must exist first to be modified.

• Option B (create host ...): Although the word "create" suggests adding new objects, this syntax does not align with Check Point’s actual command-line or API format. Check Point's management CLI (mgmt_cli) uses a more specific command structure that must include connection parameters and the command verb like add.

• Option C (new host ...): The keyword new is common in programming languages for object instantiation but is not recognized in Check Point’s API commands. It is not part of the management CLI or API syntax and thus is invalid here.

• Option D (mgmt_cli –m <mgmt ip> add host ...): This is the correct command syntax using the mgmt_cli tool, which is the command-line interface for interacting with the Check Point management server programmatically. The -m <mgmt ip> flag specifies the IP address of the management server to connect to. The add host command creates a new host object with the specified name and IP address. This is the proper and widely used method to add new objects in Check Point R80.x management.

Therefore, option D accurately represents the API command to create a host named "My Host" with IP "192.168.0.10" using Check Point’s management CLI.

Question 5:

Which command should you use to confirm that the API server is currently active and responding properly?

A. api stat
B. show api_status
C. api_get_status
D. api status

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

To verify whether an API server is up and running, the commonly accepted command across many network systems and management tools is api status. This command is designed to provide administrators with immediate feedback on the operational state of the API server, confirming whether it is responsive and functioning correctly. Running this command typically returns the current status and health of the API service, which is crucial for troubleshooting and system monitoring.

Now, let’s consider the other options:

• A (api stat) is not generally recognized as a standard command for checking API server health. Although some specific applications might implement this command, it is not widely used or consistent across platforms.

• B (show api_status) is occasionally found in certain network devices or specialized systems, where the show prefix is used to query status information. However, it is less universal and less standardized compared to api status. This command might provide similar information but isn’t as commonly implemented or documented.

• C (api_get_status) resembles a function call you might see in programming or within specific API frameworks, but it is not a standard command used on command-line interfaces or network devices to verify server responsiveness.

In essence, api status is the most widely supported and intuitive command for confirming the operational status of the API server. Its straightforward syntax and broad adoption in network appliances and management consoles make it the preferred choice for administrators needing a quick health check of the API service.

Question 6:

Which of the following collections of tools can you use to interact with and send commands to the API server?

A. API_cli Tool, Gaia CLI, Web Services
B. SmartConsole GUI Console, API_cli Tool, Gaia CLI, Web Services
C. SmartView Monitor, API_cli Tool, Gaia CLI, Web Services
D. SmartConsole GUI Console, mgmt._cli Tool, Gaia CLI, Web Services

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

When managing a Check Point security environment, there are several different interfaces and tools available to communicate with the API server and perform administrative tasks. It’s important to understand which tools are used for configuration and communication versus those intended for monitoring or are invalid references.

• SmartConsole GUI Console is the primary graphical user interface for administrators to manage Check Point security policies and configurations. It connects to the API server to execute commands and retrieve information in a user-friendly environment.

• API_cli Tool is a command-line utility that allows administrators to interact with the API server directly through commands, making it useful for automation, scripting, or advanced management.

• Gaia CLI is the command-line interface for managing the Check Point gateway OS itself. It can be used to configure system-level settings and communicate with the API server.

• Web Services refers to the RESTful APIs exposed by Check Point, enabling programmatic, automated management of security policies and monitoring through HTTP requests.

Now, evaluating the other options:

• Option A lacks SmartConsole GUI, which is critical as the main GUI for most administrators to communicate with the API server.

• Option C includes SmartView Monitor, which is primarily a monitoring and reporting tool, not an interface for sending commands or configuration to the API server.

• Option D incorrectly lists “mgmt._cli Tool,” which is not a recognized or valid Check Point tool, indicating a mistake.

Therefore, Option B correctly lists all the valid and commonly used interfaces to communicate with the Check Point API server, including both graphical and command-line tools as well as programmatic access via Web Services.

Question 7:

Which Check Point command should Alice execute to verify whether the API services for management are currently running?

A. status mgmt api
B. api mgmt status
C. status api
D. api status

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

In Check Point environments, confirming the operational status of API services on the management server is crucial for troubleshooting and ensuring system accessibility. To determine if these API services are active, Alice needs to use the correct command.

Among the given options, “status api” is the recognized and valid command in Check Point’s command-line interface (CLI) to check the status of API services. Executing this command will provide immediate feedback on whether the API services are running or stopped, which is essential for administrators monitoring management access.

Let’s analyze why the other options are invalid:

• Option A: “status mgmt api” is not a recognized command format in Check Point’s CLI. Commands in Check Point follow strict syntactical rules, and this option does not conform to the required structure. Therefore, it will not return the desired status information.

• Option B: “api mgmt status” also does not match the accepted command patterns in Check Point CLI. While it might sound logical, it is not a valid command, so it won’t produce any output or may generate an error.

• Option D: “api status” is the reverse of the correct command. Check Point requires the verb “status” to precede “api” for this particular check, making this command invalid.

Thus, the command “status api” is the appropriate and standard way to confirm whether the management API services are running. This command helps administrators like Alice quickly ascertain service health and troubleshoot API connectivity issues. Because of this, Option C is the correct choice.

Question 8:

How does the failover process operate for Security Gateways and Security Management Servers in Check Point R81.X redundancy architecture?

A. Both Security Gateway and Security Management Server failovers are automatic.
B. Security Gateway failover is automatic, but Security Management Server failover is manual.
C. Security Gateway failover is manual, but Security Management Server failover is automatic.
D. Both Security Gateway and Security Management Server failovers are manual.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

In Check Point R81.X, the failover mechanisms for Security Gateways and Security Management Servers differ, reflecting the distinct purposes and redundancy models for each component.

The Security Gateway failover is designed to be automatic. This automatic failover is typically handled via technologies like ClusterXL or similar clustering frameworks. If the primary Security Gateway fails, traffic is automatically redirected to a standby gateway without administrative intervention. This automatic process ensures high availability and continuous network security enforcement, minimizing downtime and service disruption.

On the other hand, the Security Management Server failover is generally a manual process. While Check Point supports having a secondary or backup management server, failover does not occur automatically. If the primary management server goes down, an administrator must manually promote the backup server to become the active management server. This manual failover is part of a broader disaster recovery strategy and requires deliberate intervention to maintain control and ensure proper configuration.

Evaluating the incorrect answers:

• Option A incorrectly states that both failovers are automatic, but Security Management Server failover is not automatic in R81.X.

• Option C is wrong because Security Gateway failover is never manual when using Check Point’s clustering solutions; it is automated. Also, Security Management Server failover is not automatic.

• Option D is false because the Security Gateway failover is automatic, not manual.

In summary, Option B accurately reflects Check Point’s redundancy behavior: automatic failover for Security Gateways, ensuring seamless security enforcement, and manual failover for Security Management Servers, allowing administrators to control management continuity explicitly.

Question 9:

Which synchronization status is considered optimal for a Security Management Server in a High Availability deployment?

A. Never been synchronized
B. Collision
C. Synchronized
D. Lagging

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

In a High Availability (HA) setup involving Security Management Servers (SMS), the synchronization status between the primary and secondary servers plays a vital role in maintaining seamless operations and system reliability. The ideal state is one where both servers have fully aligned data and configurations, enabling the secondary server to take over immediately if the primary fails.

The Synchronized status is the most desirable condition in this context. It confirms that both servers share identical configurations, policies, and data, ensuring smooth failover capabilities. When servers are synchronized, administrative operations, policy enforcement, and log handling can continue uninterrupted even if one server becomes unavailable. This status guarantees redundancy and high availability, which are key objectives of such deployments.

If the status shows Never been synchronized, it means the servers have not yet completed an initial sync. While this might be seen during setup, it is unsuitable for ongoing operations because the secondary server cannot serve as a reliable backup until it matches the primary. This gap creates a single point of failure risk, defeating the purpose of HA.

A Collision status signifies conflicting data or configurations between servers, often due to manual changes or synchronization errors. This condition blocks further synchronization until conflicts are resolved and poses a serious risk to system reliability. Failover might not work correctly, potentially disrupting security management.

The Lagging state indicates that the secondary server is not fully up to date but still partially synchronized. This can result from network latency or processing delays. Although less critical than collisions or no sync, lagging still poses a risk as the secondary server may not have the latest policies or configurations if failover happens prematurely.

To summarize, the Synchronized status (Option C) represents the ideal synchronization state in a Security Management Server High Availability deployment, ensuring both servers are fully aligned and ready for seamless failover.

Question 10:

In a Management High Availability (HA) environment, what does it indicate if both HA members have differing policies or databases?

A. Lagging
B. Never been synchronized
C. Collision
D. Synchronized

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

Within a Management High Availability (HA) deployment—common in firewall clusters or security management solutions—both members must maintain identical policies, databases, and configurations to ensure consistent and reliable operation. When discrepancies arise between these members, it leads to synchronization problems and impacts failover reliability.

The Collision state specifically describes the scenario where the two HA members have conflicting policies or database entries. This means that the systems have divergent configurations, which often occur due to missed synchronization, manual changes on one node, or synchronization failures. The collision condition signals that the management HA system recognizes these conflicts and has stopped synchronization to prevent inconsistent behavior.

Operating under collision conditions is problematic because the two HA units will not enforce the same security policies or may have different versions of configuration data. This divergence can cause security gaps or operational failures if failover occurs since the backup node may behave differently from the primary.

Other synchronization states include Lagging, which reflects a delay or temporary backlog in syncing data but not a full conflict; Never been synchronized, meaning the synchronization process has not yet occurred; and Synchronized, the ideal state where both members are perfectly aligned.

To clarify, Lagging simply means one server is behind in updates but still working toward synchronization. Never been synchronized indicates no sync has taken place but not necessarily conflicting data. Synchronized means complete alignment.

In conclusion, when both members hold different policies or databases, this results in a Collision state (Option C), indicating critical synchronization issues that must be resolved promptly to restore HA integrity.