Vmedu Scrum Master Certified Exam Dumps & Practice Test Questions

Question 1:

Which of the following statements about risk communication in Scrum is incorrect?

A. Stakeholders are regularly kept up to date about risks, their impacts, and the planned responses.
B. The Scrum Team can bring up risk-related issues with the Product Owner during Daily Standups.
C. The Product Owner is solely responsible for ranking risks and sharing the prioritized list with the team.
D. Risk-related data is tracked and updated using the Risk Burndown Chart.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

In Scrum, risk communication is a shared and ongoing process that supports transparency and responsiveness throughout the project. Most of the listed options accurately reflect the risk-related practices within the Scrum framework, except for option C, which misrepresents the division of responsibilities.

Option A is valid. Scrum emphasizes transparency and stakeholder involvement. Stakeholders must be regularly informed about project risks, including potential impacts and the strategies in place to manage or mitigate those risks. This helps maintain trust, ensures alignment, and allows for more informed decision-making throughout the development process.

Option B is also correct. Although the Daily Standup (or Daily Scrum) focuses on the team’s progress, upcoming work, and blockers, discussing emerging risks is appropriate when they affect tasks or progress. These meetings offer the Scrum Team a daily opportunity to raise concerns, including potential risks, especially if they’re impeding progress. The Product Owner can be consulted for input or reprioritization when risks intersect with business value or product goals.

Option C, however, is incorrect. While the Product Owner plays a critical role in prioritizing backlog items based on business value, the prioritization of risks is not exclusively their responsibility. Risk management is a collaborative effort involving the entire Scrum Team, including the Scrum Master. The Scrum Master supports the team in identifying and managing impediments, which often include risks. The development team members, who are most familiar with technical details, also play a crucial role in recognizing and addressing risks. Assigning sole responsibility to the Product Owner misrepresents Scrum principles, which promote team collaboration.

Option D is correct. The Risk Burndown Chart is a Scrum artifact used to track the status of identified risks throughout a sprint or release. It helps visualize whether risk exposure is increasing or decreasing and is useful in reviews and discussions.

Thus, C is the exception, as risk prioritization in Scrum is a shared responsibility, not just the Product Owner’s job.

Question 2:

A town has started a Scrum-managed project to monitor buses on the road. Which of the following would NOT be a typical feature of this project under the Scrum framework?

A. Extensive initial planning will be conducted to identify all potential risks upfront.
B. The team will conduct a daily 15-minute meeting to surface any roadblocks.
C. The Product Owner will sort tasks to maximize business value.
D. The project does not require all customer requirements to be finalized at the start.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Scrum is an agile project management framework designed for adaptability, rapid feedback, and ongoing evolution of product requirements. It embraces change and delivers value iteratively rather than attempting to define and control every element at the start of a project. Among the options listed, option A does not align with Scrum principles.

Option A describes a methodology based on detailed upfront planning, which is more characteristic of traditional or waterfall models. Scrum, in contrast, relies on empirical process control—progress is made through observation, transparency, and incremental delivery. While risks are acknowledged and addressed throughout the project, they are not required to be fully mapped out in the early stages. Planning in Scrum is deliberately limited to short, manageable horizons, allowing for adaptation based on feedback and discoveries during development.

Option B correctly refers to the Daily Scrum or standup meeting. This short, time-boxed daily event allows the team to quickly align, identify blockers, and plan their work for the day. Discussing impediments is a central part of this meeting, enabling fast resolution and progress tracking.

Option C also reflects Scrum roles accurately. The Product Owner is responsible for managing the Product Backlog, including prioritizing items that provide the most business value. This helps ensure that the Scrum Team delivers high-impact features as early as possible, aligning closely with business goals and customer needs.

Option D is another hallmark of Scrum. One of its strengths is its ability to accommodate changing or emerging requirements. Scrum does not require clients or stakeholders to have every requirement defined from the outset. Instead, needs are clarified and refined incrementally, which supports innovation and flexibility.

Therefore, A is the correct answer because it contradicts the iterative, evolving nature of planning in Scrum. Detailed upfront planning is replaced with continuous planning throughout sprints, making Scrum more suitable for dynamic projects.

Question 3:

Which of the following statements accurately reflects the characteristics of a Scrum of Scrums meeting, as facilitated by the Chief Scrum Master?

A. This meeting is held spontaneously without a fixed schedule.
B. This meeting is designed to expand continuously as the project grows.
C. This meeting adheres to a fixed time limit during each session.
D. This meeting is only applicable to large, high-budget projects.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

The Scrum of Scrums is a coordination meeting designed for projects where multiple Scrum teams are working simultaneously. It ensures that collaboration, alignment, and transparency are maintained across all teams involved. A key aspect of this meeting is that it follows certain Scrum principles, including time-boxing.

Option A, which states that the meeting can occur without a predetermined schedule, is incorrect. Just like the daily Scrum, the Scrum of Scrums should be held at regular intervals to maintain consistency. Conducting it randomly would defeat its purpose of coordination and alignment.

Option B mentions that the meeting can be scaled up. While it is true that Scrum of Scrums supports scaling Scrum to multiple teams, the meeting itself isn’t inherently "scaled up" beyond its structure. Instead, it already represents a scaled agile technique by having representatives from each team participate.

Option C is correct because time-boxing is a fundamental element of Scrum practices, including the Scrum of Scrums. The goal is to maintain a concise and focused discussion, usually capped at 15–30 minutes. This helps prevent scope creep in conversations and ensures meetings are efficient.

Option D, which suggests the meeting is only for high-investment projects, is incorrect. Scrum of Scrums can be useful in any multi-team scenario, regardless of project size or budget, as long as coordination is needed between teams.

Ultimately, the time-boxed nature of the Scrum of Scrums ensures structure and efficiency. It prevents lengthy meetings, promotes focused updates, and respects the participants' time. The Chief Scrum Master facilitates the process, ensuring that teams communicate dependencies, share progress, and resolve impediments in a structured timeframe. This allows organizations to maintain agility even in large-scale implementations. Therefore, the most accurate statement is that this meeting is always time-boxed.

Question 4:

A multinational company is adopting Scrum for its turnkey projects to enhance customer satisfaction. Which of the following is NOT a core principle of Scrum that should be used as a customer-facing benefit?

A. Self-organization
B. Collaboration
C. Value-based Prioritization
D. Theoretical process control

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Scrum is founded on several core principles that aim to improve responsiveness, product quality, and customer satisfaction. These principles include self-organization, collaboration, value-based prioritization, and empirical process control. Let’s explore each option to identify which one does not represent a Scrum principle suitable for promoting its benefits.

Option A, self-organization, is central to Scrum. Teams are empowered to determine how they complete their work, fostering autonomy and innovation. This leads to faster decision-making, greater accountability, and higher morale. Customers benefit from the increased productivity and adaptability that self-organized teams provide.

Option B, collaboration, is another cornerstone of Scrum. It promotes close communication between team members and with stakeholders. Continuous feedback loops ensure that the evolving product reflects customer needs. Emphasizing collaboration helps ensure transparency and rapid adjustments, which are compelling benefits for customers.

Option C, value-based prioritization, highlights Scrum's focus on delivering the most important and impactful features first. The Product Owner works with stakeholders to prioritize tasks based on business value, allowing teams to deliver high-value increments early and frequently. This is particularly attractive to customers who want to see a faster return on investment.

Option D, theoretical process control, is not one of Scrum's foundational principles. While Scrum embraces empirical process control—relying on observation, transparency, and adaptation—theoretical process control is more related to traditional control theory and doesn’t align with Scrum’s practical, feedback-driven nature. It's a more abstract concept not directly applied in agile frameworks like Scrum.

Therefore, when trying to explain Scrum’s advantages to customers, theoretical process control is not relevant or useful. It doesn’t reflect Scrum’s practical and iterative methods, nor does it contribute to the customer-centric value proposition. Thus, the correct answer is D, as it is not a recognized principle in the Scrum framework.

Question 5:

During the Retrospect Project meeting, the Chief Scrum Master plays a crucial role by contributing insights that help the team reflect and grow. Which of the following is considered the key output of this retrospective process?

A Agreed Actionable Improvements
B Agreed Actionable Schedule
C Agreed Actionable Lessons
D Agreed Actionable Objectives

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

The Retrospect Project process, often referred to as the Sprint Retrospective in Scrum, is designed to give teams a structured opportunity to reflect on how a sprint or project went. The goal is not simply to review what happened but to actively identify improvements for future work cycles. It is a team-oriented session that fosters continuous improvement and increased team effectiveness.

The primary outcome of this process is Agreed Actionable Improvements. These are specific, concrete steps the team decides to implement in upcoming sprints to improve performance, communication, workflows, or collaboration. These improvements are directly informed by what the team experienced and learned in the just-concluded sprint. They aim to address inefficiencies or challenges, and they’re intended to be realistic and implementable.

Looking at the alternatives:

  • B (Agreed Actionable Schedule) is incorrect because scheduling falls under sprint or release planning, not retrospective outcomes. The retrospective doesn’t plan timelines; it focuses on team dynamics and process improvements.

  • C (Agreed Actionable Lessons) sounds similar to the correct answer, but the key difference is in the term "lessons." The team may indeed extract lessons, but unless these lessons are turned into actionable improvements, they do not fulfill the goal of a retrospective.

  • D (Agreed Actionable Objectives) refers more to high-level goals or project aims, typically defined during planning sessions—not in retrospectives. The retrospective focuses on refining how the team works, not what they aim to achieve.

In conclusion, the value of the Retrospect Project process lies in translating observed experiences into actionable, agreed-upon changes that the team can implement right away. This approach ensures ongoing evolution and refinement of the Scrum process.

Question 6:

What typically happens to the Scrumboard once a Sprint concludes?

A It is updated with new and completed tasks
B It is placed next to the new board for performance comparison
C It is reviewed by the Scrum Master to assess progress
D It is cleared or reset for the next Sprint

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

In Scrum, the Scrumboard is a visual tracking tool that helps the development team organize and monitor tasks throughout a Sprint. It includes columns like "To Do," "In Progress," and "Done," allowing everyone to see task statuses at a glance. However, this board is designed to reflect a single Sprint's work and is not meant to persist beyond that sprint cycle.

At the end of each Sprint, the Scrumboard is reset or wiped clean to prepare for the next Sprint. This practice aligns with Scrum’s iterative nature—each Sprint is treated as a self-contained unit of work with its own scope, objectives, and tasks. Therefore, the visual management tool must also be refreshed to support this structure.

  • A (Updated with new tasks and completed tasks) is not accurate. While tasks are updated during the Sprint, the board is not carried forward or simply appended to. Instead, it is completely reset for the upcoming Sprint.

  • B (Placed next to the new one to compare team velocities) describes a non-standard, informal practice. While some teams might keep historical boards for reference, this is neither common nor recommended in core Scrum guidelines.

  • C (Analyzed by the Scrum Master to assess progress) is partially true in that the Scrum Master facilitates reviews and retrospectives, but the Scrumboard itself is not formally analyzed after the Sprint ends; the Sprint Review and Retrospective are the correct forums for such evaluations.

Resetting the Scrumboard symbolizes a clean slate, which aligns with Scrum’s philosophy of incremental improvement. It allows teams to focus only on the current Sprint’s work without being distracted or constrained by previous cycles. This reset process also reinforces the time-boxed nature of Scrum sprints, where each one is treated as a fresh opportunity for delivery and improvement.

Therefore, D is the correct answer—the Scrumboard is reset or wiped off after each Sprint to begin anew.

Question 7:

Emily has recently assumed the position of Scrum Master for a new project. One of her core duties involves educating the Scrum Team. In this context, what should Emily primarily focus on when it comes to training the team?

A. Addressing technical skill deficiencies among team members
B. Clarifying the business value behind product features
C. Helping the team better communicate their obstacles and find solutions
D. Improving the team’s knowledge of Scrum frameworks and concepts

Answer: D

Explanation:

As the Scrum Master, Emily’s foremost responsibility is to ensure that the Scrum Team fully understands and effectively follows Scrum principles and practices. This includes educating the team on the core values, events, roles, and artifacts of Scrum. While a Scrum Master may also support team growth in other areas, the foundational understanding of Scrum is essential for the team to function properly within the framework.

Let’s explore the options.
Option A refers to addressing technical skill gaps, which is valuable but not the direct responsibility of a Scrum Master. Team members are expected to self-manage and grow technically through shared learning or external support. The Scrum Master may facilitate access to resources, but she is not accountable for the team's technical development.

Option B centers around business value comprehension. Although it’s critical that the team understands why features matter, this is typically the Product Owner’s domain. The Product Owner communicates feature priorities and business value to guide development decisions. The Scrum Master may help facilitate conversations but does not lead this initiative.

Option C suggests enabling better communication, which is indeed a key part of the Scrum Master’s role. Promoting open dialogue and encouraging the team to raise impediments during events like Daily Scrums or Sprint Retrospectives fosters team cohesion and adaptability. However, while important, this is not the most central training focus.

Option D, enhancing the team’s grasp of Scrum processes and principles, aligns directly with the Scrum Master’s core purpose. Emily must ensure that the team understands how Scrum functions—including time-boxed events, roles, and the empirical process control model. This knowledge forms the bedrock for team success and adaptability.

In summary, although A, B, and C describe valuable aspects of team growth, D represents the Scrum Master’s most fundamental training responsibility—ensuring clear and accurate knowledge of the Scrum framework.

Question 8:

To help the Product Owner prepare for a successful product deployment during the Ship Deliverables stage, what should the Scrum Master ensure is in place?

A. The Scrum Team builds the deliverables as per agreement
B. The Release Plan and Prioritized Product Backlog remain current
C. The Scrum Team is responsible for drafting the release schedule
D. The Scrum Team accepts or rejects deliverables during Sprint Reviews

Answer: B

Explanation:

In the Scrum framework, ensuring a successful product release involves close collaboration between the Product Owner, Scrum Master, and Scrum Team. The Scrum Master plays a pivotal role in supporting the Product Owner by maintaining transparency, improving processes, and fostering alignment with project goals. When preparing for a product deployment, keeping the Release Plan and Prioritized Product Backlog updated is vital.

Let’s analyze the options.
Option A, having the Scrum Team build the agreed deliverables, is an ongoing development task. While necessary, this does not directly facilitate deployment readiness. The team already commits to delivering potentially shippable increments every Sprint, but this does not guarantee a coordinated release unless properly planned and prioritized.

Option B is the correct answer. The Release Plan outlines when and how product features will be delivered, while the Prioritized Product Backlog ensures that the most valuable and timely items are addressed first. The Scrum Master should actively help the Product Owner keep these tools updated. This ensures that the product’s deployment aligns with evolving stakeholder needs, feedback from Sprint Reviews, and any changes in business priorities. Keeping these artifacts current empowers the Product Owner to coordinate smooth and efficient product releases.

Option C, suggesting the Scrum Team creates the release schedule, is misleading. The Product Owner typically drives release planning, determining the “what” and “when” based on the backlog. The Scrum Team provides input on feasibility and velocity, but they don’t lead or own the release schedule. The Scrum Master’s role is to ensure this planning process follows Scrum guidelines, not to assign it to the team.

Option D relates to validation during the Sprint Review, where stakeholders assess the increment. However, the Scrum Team does not “accept or reject” deliverables in isolation; this decision is made by the Product Owner based on the Definition of Done. It’s also not the Scrum Master’s responsibility to oversee this acceptance.

In conclusion, the Scrum Master enables deployment success by ensuring the Release Plan and Product Backlog are well maintained, making B the best choice.

Question 9:

During the development of a Project Vision, which technique best helps stakeholders determine the difference between the current capabilities of the organization and the future capabilities they aim to achieve?

A. Trial Project
B. JAD Session
C. Gap Analysis
D. SWOT Analysis

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

A Gap Analysis is the most effective technique for identifying the discrepancies between where an organization currently stands and where it aims to go in terms of capabilities and performance. When leadership and stakeholders—such as the Program Product Owner, Chief Product Owner, and Program Scrum Master—collaborate to create a Project Vision, they must first understand what improvements or changes are necessary to achieve the desired outcomes.

Gap Analysis provides a structured framework for comparing the current state (also known as the “as-is” state) with the future state (or “to-be” state). This evaluation reveals what skills, resources, systems, or processes are lacking and helps define the steps required to close these gaps. This insight supports effective strategic planning, priority setting, and decision-making, ensuring that the Project Vision is grounded in reality and aligned with organizational goals.

Now, let’s review why the other options are less appropriate:

  • Trial Project is primarily used to test a solution on a small scale before a full implementation. It’s useful for validation, but not for identifying capability differences at a strategic level.

  • JAD Sessions (Joint Application Development) are interactive meetings focused on gathering system requirements with input from users and developers. While they are collaborative, they do not assess or compare organizational capabilities.

  • SWOT Analysis is useful for identifying Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, and Threats, but it doesn’t offer a direct comparison between current and desired capabilities. It is more general and does not lead to detailed gap identification.

For the purpose of defining what the organization needs to change or improve to reach its future goals, Gap Analysis is the most precise and practical approach. It forms a crucial part of laying a strong foundation for a successful project vision.

Question 10:

Which of the following does NOT represent true collaboration within a Scrum Team?

A. The Scrum Team independently decides which User Stories are important and assigns them to upcoming Sprints.
B. Team members work together to figure out the best method to create Sprint deliverables.
C. One team member assists another who is struggling with a task during the Sprint.
D. The team engages with the Product Owner to clarify User Stories.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Collaboration is a foundational value in Scrum, emphasizing shared ownership, open communication, and mutual support among all team members. However, this collaboration occurs within defined roles and responsibilities. While the Scrum Team is self-organizing, it does not act independently of the Product Owner when it comes to prioritizing work.

Let’s examine why Option A is incorrect and does not represent true collaboration. In Scrum, the Product Owner is solely responsible for prioritizing the Product Backlog based on business value, stakeholder input, and strategic alignment. The Scrum Team does not decide which User Stories are “important” on its own. Instead, during Sprint Planning, the team pulls the highest-priority items from the backlog that it can realistically complete, considering its capacity. Therefore, if the Scrum Team were to decide story importance and assign Sprints without consulting the Product Owner, it would be acting outside the boundaries of Scrum roles—hence, this is not a genuine example of collaboration.

Now let’s evaluate the other options:

  • Option B showcases true teamwork. During a Sprint, the development team collaborates to determine how best to achieve the Sprint Goal. They plan, discuss, and adapt together.

  • Option C is another perfect example of Scrum collaboration. When one team member faces a challenge, others step in to support, reinforcing the team’s shared responsibility.

  • Option D highlights the healthy communication between the Scrum Team and the Product Owner. Seeking clarification ensures that everyone shares a common understanding of the work, which is essential for effective delivery.

In summary, Option A breaks the defined boundaries of Scrum roles and misrepresents how collaboration functions in a Scrum environment, making it the correct answer to this question.

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